Free Online Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007

Free Online Objective Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007
These questions appeared in IES 2007.This is totally free objective test.To download select the text and save in Word or Text.
1. Which one of the following metal forming processes is not a high energy rate
forming process ?
(a) Electro-magnetic forming (b) Roll-forming
(c) Explosive forming (d) Electro-hydraulic forming

2. What are the advantages of powder metallurgy ?
1. Extreme purity product
2. Low labour cost.
3. Low equipment cost.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists:
List I (Casting Process)
A. Die casting
B. Investment casting
C. Shell moulding
D. Centrifugal casting
Code:

List II (Principle)
1. The metal solidifies in a rotating mould
2. The pattern cluster is repeatedly dipped into a ceramic slurry and dusted with refractory
3. Molten metal is forced by pressure into a metallic mould
4. After cooling the invest is removed from the casting by pressure jetting or vibratory cleaning

A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4


4. Consider the following statements in respect of investment castings:
1. The pattern or patterns is/are not joined to a stalk or sprue also of wax to form a tree of patterns.
2.
The prepared moulds are placed in an oven and heated gently to dry off the invest and melt out the bulk of wax.
3.
The moulds are usually poured by placing the moulds in a vacuum chamber.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


5 Which of the following are employed in shell moulding ?
1. Resin binder
2. Metal pattern
3. Heating coils
5 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

6. Wh ich one of the following is the correct statement ?
In a centrifugal casting method
(a) no core is used (b) core may be made of any metal
(c) core is made of sand (d) core is made of ferrous metal

7. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
Gate is provided in moulds to
(a) feed the casting at a constant rate
(b) give passage to gases
(c) compensate for shrinkage
(d) avoid cavities

8. Consider the following statements in respect of oxy-acetylene welding:
1. The joint is not heated to a state of fusion.
2. No pressure is used.
3. Oxygen is stored in steel cylinder at a pressure of 14 MPa.
4. When there is an excess of acetylene used, there is a decided change in the appearance of flame.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

9. The coating material of an arc welding electrode contains which of the following
1. Deoxidising agent
2. Arc stabilizing agent
3. Slag forming agent
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

10. In MIG welding, the metal is transferred into the form of which one of the following ?
(a) A fine spray of metal (b) Molten drops
(c) Weld pool {d) Molecules

Consider the following statements in respect of the laser beam welding:
1. It can be used for welding any metal or their combinations because of very high temperature of the focal points.
2. Heat affected zone is very large because of quick heating.
3. High vacuum is required to carry the process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following effects are possible due to residual stresses in welding ?
1. Reduce dimensional stability.
2. Weld cracking.
3. Effect on fatigue strength.
4. Reduction in the creep strength.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) land 3 only id) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. During machining, excess metal is removed in the form of chip as in the case of
turning on a lathe. Which of the following are correct ?
Continuous ribbon like chip is formed when turning
1. at a higher cutting speed
2. at a lower cutting speed
3. a brittle material
4. a ductile material

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 3 (b) l and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4


13. Screw threads are produced on solid rods by using which of the following ?
(a) Dies (b) Punch
(c) Mandrel (d) Boring bar

14. What is the process ofremoving metal by a milling cutter which is rotated against
the direction of travel of the work piece, called ?
(a) Down milling (b) Up milling
(c) End milling (b) Face milling


15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List I List II
(Long Column)
A. Both ends hinged
B. One end fixed and other
end free
C. Both ends fixed
D. One end fixed, and other
hinged
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

16. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of packing density for
the given crystal structures of metals ?
(a) Simple cubic - Face centred cubic - Body centred cubic
(b) Body centred cubic - Simple cubic ~ Face centred cubic
(c) Simple cubic - Body centred cubic - Face centred cubic
(d) Body centred cubic — Face centred cubic - Simple cubic

17. Vibration damping in machinery is best achieved by means of base structures
made of which one of the following materials ?
(a) Low carbon steel (6) Nodular iron
(c) Grey cast iron (d) White cast iron


18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I List II
(Component) (Required Property)
A. Blades of bulldozer 1. High wear resistance and high toughness
B. Gas turbine blades 2. Low Young's modulus and high fatigue
strength
C. Drill bit 3. High wear and abrasion
D. Springs of automobiles 4. High creep strength and good corrosion
resistance

Code:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4

19. What is the movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic planes and
directions, termed as ?
(a) Glide (b) Twinning
(c) Slip (d)Jog

20. Which one of the following is the correct statement f
Pearlite in iron-carbon system is a
(a) phase consisting of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (6) Mechanical mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (c) eutectic mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature {d) All the above three are correct

21. Which of the following factors influence hardness in a plain carbon steel ?
1. Percentage carbon
2. Quenching media
3. Work size
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists.
List I List II
(Material) (Application)
A. Fibre reinforce plastics 1. Automobile tyres
B. Acryli les 2. Aircraft
C. Phenolics 3. Lenses
D. Butadiene rubber 4. Electric switch cover
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

23. Which one of the following is the most effective strengthening mechanism of non-
ferrous metal ?
(a) Solid solution hardening (b) Strain hardening
(c) Grain size refinement (d) Precipitation hardening

24. Wood is natural composite consisting of which of the following ?
(a) Lignin fibers in collagen matrix
(b) Lignin fibers in apatite matrix
(c) Cellulose fibres in apatite matrix
(d) Cellulose fibres in lignin matrix

25. Which one of the following is not a ceramic ?
(a) Alumina (b) Porcelain
(c) Whisker (d) Pyrosil

26. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has which one of the following compositions ?
(a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V (b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
(c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V (d) 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V

27. Which one of the following elements alloys exhibits season cracking ?
(a) Iron (6) Brass
(c) Aluminium (d) Steel


28. Which metal forming process is used for manufacture of long steel wire ?
(a) Deep drawing (b) Forging
(c) Drawing (d) Extrusion

29. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(a) Extrusion is used for the manufacture of seamless tubes
(b) Extrusion is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the work
(c) Extrusion is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses on its surface
(d) Extrusion comprises pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired from the finished part

30. Interference between the teeth of two meshing involute gears can be reduced oreliminated by
1. Increasing the addendum of the gear teeth and correspondingly reducing the addendum of the pinion.
2. reducing the pressure angle of the teeth of the meshing gears
3. increasing the centre distance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

31. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In meshing gears with involute gear teeth, the correct begins at the intersection of the
(a) line of action and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(b) line of action and the pitch circle of the driven gear
(c) dedendum circle of the driver gear and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(d) addendum circle of the driver gear and the pitch circle of the driven gear

32. The turning moment diagram for a single cylinder double acting steam engine
consists of+ve and -ve loops above the below the average torque line. For the +ve
loop, the ratio of the speeds of the flywheel at the beginning and the end is which
one of the following
(a) Less than unity (b) Equal to unity
(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero

33. In a slider-bar mechanism, when does the connecting rod have zero angular ve
locity ?
(a) When crank angle = 0° (b) When crank angle = 90°
(c) When crank angle = 45° (d) Never


34. Consider the following follower motions in respect of a given lift, speed of rotation
and angle of stroke of a cam:
1. Cycloidal motion.
2. Simple harmonic motion.
3. Uniform velocity motion.


35. In order for a transportation matrix which has six rows and four columns not to
be degenerate, how much must be the number of allocated cells in the matrix ?
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 24


36. Which one of the following causes the whirling of shafts ?
(a) Non-homogeneity of shaft material
(b) Misalignment of bearings
(c) Fluctuation of speed
(d) Internal damping

37. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In the standard form of a linear programming problem, all constraints are (a) of less than or equal to, type (b) of greater than or equal to , type
(c) in the form of equations
(d) some constraints are of less than equal to, type and some of greater than equal to, type

38. Ifm is the number of constraints in a linear programming with two variables x
and y and non-negativity constraints x>0,y>0; the feasible region in the graphi
cal solution will be surrounded by how many lines ?
(a) m (b) m + 1
(c) m + 2 (d) m + 4

39. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of acceptance sampling ?
(a) This is widely suitable in mass production (b) It causes less fatigue to inspectors
(c) This is muen economical
(d) It gives definite assurance for the conformation of the specifications for all the pieces

40. Which one of the following subroutines does a computer implementation of the
simplex routine require ?
(a) Finding a root of a polynomial
(b) Solving a system of linear equations
(c) Finding the determinant of a matrix
(d) Finding the eigenvalue of a matrix

41, Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below Lists:
List I List II
(Application) (Joint)

A. Boiler Shell 1, Cotter Joint
B. Marine Shaft Coupling 2. Knuckle Joint
C. Crosshead and Piston Rod 3. Riveted joint
D. Automobile gear box 4. Splines
(gears to shaft) 5. Bolted Joint
Code :
A B C D
(.a) 1 4 2 5
(b) 3 5 1 4
(c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 3 4 1 5


42. How can shock absorbing capacity of a bell be increased ?
(a) By tightening it properly
(6) By increasing the shank diameter
(c)By grinding the shank
(d)By making the shank diameter equal to the core diameter of thread

43. How is the type of a railway wheel fitted ?
(a) By seam welding (6) By fillet welding
(c) By interference fit (d) None of the above

44. Consider the following statements in case of belt drives:
1. Centrifugal tension in the belt increases the transmitted power.
2. Centrifugal tension does not affect the driving tension.
3. Maximum tension in the belt is always three times the centrifugal tension. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

45.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Worm gear 1. Imposes no thrust load on the shaft
B. Spur gear 2. To transmit power between two non-inter-
secting shafts which are perpendicular
C. Herringbone 3. lb transmitpower when the shafts are parallel
D. Spiral level gear 4. To transmit power when the shafts are at
right angles to one another
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

46. The velocity ratio between pinion and gear in a gear drive is 2-3, the module of
teeth is 2-0 mm and sum of number of teeth on pinion and gear is 99. What is the
centre distance between pinion and the gear ?
(a) 49. 5 mm (6) 99 mm
(c) 148.5 mm (d) 198 mm

47. Compared tc years with 20°pressure angle involute full depth teeth, those with 20°pressure angle and stub teeth have
1. smaller addendum.
2. smaller dedendum.
3. smaller tooth thickness.
4. greater bending strength.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

48. An hollow shaft of outer dia 40 mm and inner dia of 20 mm is to be replaced by a solid shaft to transmit the same torque at the same maximum stress. What should
be the diameter of the solid shaft ?
(a) 30 mm (b) 35 mm
(c) 10x(60)1/3mm (d) 10x(20)1/3mm

49. What is the direction of the Coriolis component of acceleration in a slotted lever-
crank mechanism ?
(a) Along the sliding velocity vector
(6) Along the direction of the crank
(c) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction opposite to the angular velocity of the slotted lever
(d) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction same as that of the angular velocity of the slotted lever

50. The controlling force curves for a spring-controlled governor are shown if the above figure. Which curve represents a stable governor ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4


51. For a governor running at constant speed, what is the value of the force acting on
the sleeve ?
(a) Zero (6) Variable depending upon the load
(c) Maximum (d) Minimum


52 A motion is aperiodic at what value of the damping factor ?
(a) 1. 0 or above (6) 0. 5
(c) 0. 3 (d) 0. 866

53 Which one of the following statements relating to belt drives is correct ?
(a) The rotational speeds of the pulleys are directly proportional to their diameters
(6) The length of the crossed belt increases as the sum of the diameters of the pulleys increases
(c) The crowning of the pulleys is done to make the drive sturdy
d) The slip increases the velocity ratio


54. Under service conditions involving jarring, vibration and pulsation of the
working load, the bolt of choice would be a
(a) short bolt with high rigidity (b) long bolt with increased elasticity
(c) bolt wiht a dished washer (d) bolt with castle nut

55. Gearing contact is which one of the following ?
(a) Sliding contact
(6) Sliding contact, only rolling at pitch point
(c) Rolling contact
(d) Rolling and sliding at each point of contact


Directions:
The next 4 (Four) items consist of two statements; one labelled as the 'Assertion(A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)\ You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true


56. Assertion (A) : For drilling cast iron, the tool is provided with a point angle smaller than
that required for a ductile material. Reason (R) : Smaller point angle results in lower rake angle.


57. Assertion (A) : Greater force on the plunger is required in case of direct extrusion then
indirect one. Reason (R) : In case of direct extrusion, the direction of the force applied on the plunger and the direction of the movement of the extruded metal are the same.


58. Assertion (A): In a multispindle automatic lathe, the turret tool holder is indexed to
engage the cutting tools one by one for successive machining operations.
Reason (R) : Turret is a multiple tool holder so that for successive machining operation, the tools need not be changed.

59. Assertion (A) : Value engineering is a technique applied to compete in the market only
at the time of introduction of a product or service. Reason (R) : Increasing the functional worth of a product appreciably, keeping the cost almost constant, is the real objective of value engineering.

60. Consider the following statements:
In a thick walled cylindrical pressure vessel subjected to internal pressure, the tangential and radial stresses are
1. minimum at outer side
2. minimum at inner side
3. maximum at inner side and both reduce to zero at outer well
4. maximum at inner wall but the radial stress reduces to zero at outer wall Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) l and 2 (6) l and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only

61. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a helical spring is halved in length, its spring stiffness
(a) remains same (b) halves
(c) doubles (d) triples '

62 . Which one of the following statements is correct ?
When a rectangular section beam is loaded transversely along the length, shear stress develops on
(a) top fibre of rectangular beam
(6) middle fibre of rectangular beam
(c) bottom fibre of rectangular beam
(d) every horizontal plane


63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(a) the bending moment is the same throughout the beam (6) the shear stress is the same throughout the beam
(c) the deflection is the same throughout the beam
(d) the bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis

64. A cantilever beam of 2 m length supports a triangularly distributed load over its
entire length, the maximum of which is at the free end. The total load is 37-5 kN.
What is the bending moment at the fixed end ?
(a) 50 x 106 N mm (b) 12. 5 x 106 N mm
(c) 100 x 106 N mm (d) 25 x 106 N mm

65. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a material expands freely due to heating, it will develop
(a) thermal stress (b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress (d) no stress

66. What is the phenomenon of progressive extension of the material i.e., strain increasing with the time at a constant load, called ?
(a) Plasticity (b) "Yielding
(c) Creeping (d) Breaking

67. What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called ?
(a) Homogeneous materials (6) /Viscoelastic materials
(c) Isotropic materials (d) Anisotropic materials

68. If the ratio G/E (G = Rigidity modulus, E = Young's modulus of elasticity) is 0>4,
then what is the value of the Poisson ratio ?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.33

69 Increase in values of which of the following results in an increase of the coeffi
cient of friction in a hydrodynamic bearing ?
1. Viscosity of the oil.
2. Clearance between shaft and bearing.
3. Shaft speed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements:
For a journal rotating a bearing under film lubrication conditions, the frictional resistance is
1. proportional to the area of contact
2. proportional to the viscosity of lubricant
3. propoi tional to the speed of rotation
4. independent of the pressure
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

71. Consider the following statements:
1. is a modification of moving average method
2. is a weighted average of past observations
3. assigns the highest weightage to the most recent observation Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

72. Consider the following statements:
Scheduling
1. is a general timetable of manufacturing
2. is the time phase of loading
3. is loading all the work in process on machines according to their capacity Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only

73. In an assembly line, what is the balance delay ?
(a) Line efficiency x 100 (b) 100 - Line efficiency (in percentage)
Line efficiency / 100
(c) (a) None of the above

74. If the fixed cost of the assets for a given period doubles, then how much will the
break-even quantity become ?
(a) Half the original value (6) Same as the original value
(c) Twice the original value (d) Four times the original value

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I (Term)
A. Dummy activity
B. Critical path
C. PERT activity
D. Critical path method
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
List II
(Characteristics)
1. Follows (3 distribution
2. It is built on activity-oriented diagram
3. Constructed only to establish sequence
4. Has zero total slack

76. Consider the following statements:
PERT considers the following time estimates
1. Optimistic time 2. Pessimistic time 3. Most likely time
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) l and 3 only

77. Which one of the following statements in not correct ?
(a) PERT is probabilistic and CPM is deterministic
(b) In PERT, events are used and in CPM activities are used
(c) In CPM, the probability to complete the project in a given time-duration is calculated
(d) In CPM crashing is carried out

78. Which of the following are the benefits of inventory control ? .
1. Improvement in customers relationship.
2. Economy in purchasing.
3. Elimination of the possibility of duplicate ordering. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I
A. Procurement cost
B. Carrying cost
C. Economic order quantity
D. Reorder point
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
List II
1. Cost of holding materials
2. Cost of receiving order
3. Procurement lead time
4. Break-even analysis

80. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost is doubled, the EOQ
(a) Is halved (6) Is doubled
(c) Increases 1.414 times (d) Decreases 1.414 times

81. Consider the following statements:
1. In C language, both data and the function that operate on that data are combined into a single unit called object.
2. Almost every correct statement in C is also a correct statement in C++, al though the reverse is not true.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (6) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


82. Which of the following methods are gear generating processes ?
1. Gear shaping 2.Gear hobbing 3. Gear milling
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2and3 only (d) land3 only

83. Among the following machining processes, which can be used for machining flat
surfaces ?
1. Shaping 2. Milling 3. Broaching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

84.What are the main components of an NC machine ?
1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (6) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only


85. Flank wear occurs mainly on which of the following ?
(a) Nose part and top face
(b) Cutting edge only
(c) Nose part, front relief face, and side relief face of the cutting tool
(d) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge

86. Which of the following are the machinability criteria ?
1, Tool life 2. Cutting forces 3, Surface finish
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (o) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

87. In strain gauge dynamometers, the use of how many active gauges makes the
dynamometer more effective ?
(a) Four (6) Three
(c) Two (d) One

88. For increasing the material removal rate in turning, without any constraints,
what is the right sequence to adjust the cutting parameters ?
1. Speed 2. Feed 3. Depth of cut
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3 (6) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-3-2


89. Consider the following statements in relation to the unconventional machining
processes:
1. Different forms of energy directly applied to work piece to have shape trans formation or material removal from work surface.
2. Relative motion between the work and the tool is essential.
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact with work piece.
Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) land 2 only (6) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

90. According to the principle of location in jigs and fixtures, how many degrees of
freedom are to be eliminated to have a body fixed in space ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 id) 6

91.What is the dominant direction of the tool marks or scratches in a surface texture
having a directional quality, called ?
(a) Primary texture (6) Secondary texture
(c) Lay {d) Flaw


92. Which one of the following is not a purpose of long-term forecasting ?
(a) To plan for the new unit of production
(6) To plan the long-term financial requirement
(c) To make the proper arrangement for training the personnel
(d) To decide the purchase programme


93. Consider the following statements relating to forecasting :
1. The time horizon to forecast depends upon where the product currently lies in its life cycle.
2. Opinion and judgemental forecasting methods sometimes incorpotate statistical analysis,
3. In exponential smoothing, low values ofsmoothening constant, alpha result in more smoothing than higher values of alpha.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only