Civil Engineering Practice Questions Set For SAIL GAIL

Civil Engineering Practice Questions Set For SAIL GAIL

Civil engineering practice Questions
online Objective test Civil Engg
1. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one-third of
its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Ans : D
2. In accordance to ‘Gauss rule”, weights to be assigned are proportional to
A. l/(Sum of the residual errors of observations)
B. l/(Sum of the square of the residual
errors of observations)
C. Sum of the square roots of the residual
errors of observations
D. Sum of the cube roots of the residual errors of observations
Ans : B


3. Which one of the following traffic signal systems is useful when there is continuous operation of group of vehicles along the main road?
A. Simultaneous system
B. Alternate system
C. Simple progressive system
D. Flexible progressive system
Ans : C

4. Consider the following statements:
I. In clay soils, the maximum dry weight tends to decrease as plasticity increases.
2. In clay soils, the maximum dry unit weight tends to increase as plasticity
increases.
3. Heavy clays with high plasticity have the minimum dry unit weight and high OMC.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. I and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. I and 3 only
Ans : D
5. The shape of the recession limb of a
hydrograph depends on
A. Basin .as well as storm characteristics
B. Storm characteristics only
C. Basin characteristics only
D. Base flow only
Ans : C

6. The declination of a celestial body is the arc of the declination circle intercepted between
that body and the
A. Prime vertical through that body
B. Azimuth of the body
C. Equinoxes of the Earth
D. Equator of the Earth
Ans : D

7. Consider the following statements:
1. Poorly graded or uniform sands compact to low dry unit weights.
2. Heavy clays with high plasticity have very low maximum dry unit weight.
3. In clay soils, the maximum dry weight tends to decrease as plasticity increases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Ans : C
8. A direct-runoff hydro graph due to an isolated storm was triangular in shape with a base of 80 h and peak of 200 m3/s If the catchment area is 1440 km2 the effective rainfall of the storm is
A 20cm
B. 10cm
C. 5cm
D. 2cm
Ans : D
9. In a water treatment, the optimum time of flocculation is usually given as 30 minutes. In case the time of flocculation is increased beyond this value, then the floes will
A. become heavy and settle down in flocculation itself
B. entrap air and will float in the sedimentation tank
C. break up and defeat the purpose of flocculation
D. stick to the paddles
Ans : B

10. Consider the following:
1. Line ranger
2. Reciprocal ranging
3. Random line method
4. Optical square
Which of these are the correct methods of ranging employed to solve the problem of vision obstructed but with chaining free?
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans : B

11. A centrifugal pump will start delivering t liquid only when
A. Manometer head is greater than total head
B .Head developed tends to exceed the manometric head
C. head developed in a centrifugal pump is due to pressure head only
D. Head developed is negligible
Ans : B
12. Consider the following statements:
1. A streamline is an imaginary line within the flow for which the normal at any point relates to the acceleration at that point.
2. Convective acceleration is the change in velocity with respect to distance only.
3. Temporal acceleration expresses variation of velocity with respect to time only.
4. Both convective acceleration and temporal acceleration can coexist.
Which of these statements are correct related
to fluid kinematics?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1,2and3only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only


Ans : D

13.Error due to inclination of line of collimation in leveling across a river can be eliminated by
A. Reversion
B. Reciprocal ranging
C. Reciprocal leveling
D. Keeping level in middle
Ans : C
14. Full amount of super-elevation on a horizontal curve is provided at the.
A. beginning of the transition curve
B. centr6 of the circular curve -
C. end of the transition curve
D. centre of the transitive curve

Ans : C

15. Consider the following in the context of
variations in magnetic declination:
1. Secular
2. Diurnal
3. Annual
4. Regular
Which of these are relevant?
A.1,2and3
B. 1,2and4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

Ans : A

Sample Questions Electrical Engineering Basede on Actual Questions of UPSC IAS

Sample Questions Electrical Engineering Basede on Actual Questions of UPSC IAS
Engineering Question UPSC based on Real Question Papers
IAS Prelims Papers Free online solved Questions of Electrical Engineering


1. In India, the maximum frequency deviation in commercial FM broadcasting signals is about
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 15 kHz
(c) 75 kHz
(d) 200 kHz

Ans:-B


2. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(a) √2
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

Ans:-A

3. For any amplifier configuration using a BJT, the input Impedance R i is
(a) h i (l + h fe )
(b) h i / (1—h r Av)
(c) h i / (1+h r Av)
(d) h i / (1 + h fe )

Ans:-B

4. The range of numbers that can be represented in two’s complement mode with four binary digits is
(a) —15 to +15
(b) —8 to + 8
(c) —8 to +7
(d) —7 to +7

Ans:-A

5. Cycle time of a Random Access Memory is the time required between successive
(a) accesses to memory
(b) clocks
(c) delete operations
(d) Read / Write operations

Ans:-A


6. The INTEL 8080 microprocessors has a set of 91 Instructions. The op-code to Implement this Instruction set should be of at least
(a) 6 bits
(b) 4 bits
(c) 7 bits
(d) 8 bits

Ans:-C






7. Consider the following assembly language code for a simple computer having one register only:
LOAD X
ADD Y
STORE T1 STORE T2
MULT Z MULT T1
ADD T2 STORE R
Which one of the following arithmetic expressions does it evaluate?
(a) R:Z2(1+X+Y)2
(b) R:Z2(X+Y)2+(X+Y)
(c) R:=Z(X+Y)2+(X+Y)2
(d) R:=Z(X+Y)2+(X+Y)

Ans:-D


8. Consider the following statements regarding a ‘smart’ terminal:
1. It is a minimal system containing almost no memory.
2. It contains a small microcomputer or minicomputer.
3. It permits text editing.
4. It enables checking of typing errors made by operators.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans:-C

9. The unit step response of a second order linear system with zero initial states is given by c (t) = 1 + 1.25 exp (— 6t) sin (8t — tan-1 1.333), t ≥ 0.
The damping ratio and the undamped natural frequency of oscillation of the system are respectively
(a) 0.6 and l0 rad/s
(b) 0.6 and l2.5 rad/s
(c) 0.8 and l0 rad/s
(d) 0.8 and 12.5 rad/s

Ans:-A


10. Type of a system depends on the
(a) number of its poles
(b) difference between the number of poles and zeros
(c) number of its real poles only
(d) number of poles it has at the origin

Ans:-D


11. The final value of function F(s) = 5 / s (s 2 + s + 2)
is equal to
(a) zero
(b) 2 / 5
(c) 5/2
(d) 5

Ans:-C

12. Consider the following statements:
1. P-D controller is equivalent to a high pass filter.
2. For better performance, integral action s initiated before derivative action.
3. High proportional gain is an alternative to derivative action.
4. A practical PID controller uses a high gain amplifier in the forward path.
Which of these statements are NOT correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l and 4

Ans:-C

13. In measuring the distributed capacitance ‘C d’ of a certain coil using Q-meter, initial resonance at frequency 2 MHz is obtained by tuning the capacitance set to 430pF. If resonance at 4MHz is obtained by tuning the capacitance set to 100 pF, then the value of ‘C d’ would be
(a) 10 pF
(b) 20 pF
(c) l00 pF
(d) 200 pF

Ans:-A

14. Match List I (Measurements). with List II (Transduction principles) and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
A. rpm
B. Temperature
C. Static pressure
D. Current
List II
1. Variable resistance
2. Hall effect
3. Piezoelectric effect
4. Variable reluctance
5. Variable capacit4nce
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 1 4 5 2
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 4 1 2 3

Ans:-A


15. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor of 2 is fastened to a steel member subjected to a stress of 10.5 x 10’ kN/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 2.1 x k N /m2. The change of resistance due to stress in the strain gauge is
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 1%
(d) 10%

Ans:-A


16. How many comparators are there In an ADC with 0— 5V Input and 8 bit output assuming a flash converter?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 40
(d) 255

Ans:-D



17. The ratio of the electrical resistance of a material at 300 K to Its electrical resistance at 4 K is 5.
This material could be
(a) an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) an extrinsic semiconductor
(c) an insulator
(d) a conductor

Ans:-D



18. In a ferromagnetic material, the magnetic field is Increased gradually from zero. The first process which sets in the material to give net magnetization is the
(a) growth of favourable oriented domains at
the cost of other domains by reversible domain wall movement
(b) growth of favourable oriented domains at the cost of other domains by irreversible domain wall movement
(c) alignment of domain walls with the grain boundaries
(d) rotation of domains in the direction of the applied field.

Ans:-C

19. For the epitaxial growth of material M to be possible on the substrate of material N,
(a) the lattice constants of M and N must be same
(b) M and N must not react with each ‘other
(c) the coefficients of thermal expansion of M and N must be equal
(d) M must have a lower density than N

Ans:-A


20. Silicon nitride is used as the cover layer in MOS technology because it is
(a) easy to deposit
(b) resistant to oxidation
(c) an excellent barrier to alkali ions
(d) an excellent mask for gallium

Ans:-B

Civil Engineering MCQ test

Civil Engineering MCQ test
Multiple choice questions Civil Engineering
Free MCQ Civil Engineering Practice test

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The hydraulic head at a point in the soil includes piezometric head as well as datum head.

2. Piping in soil occurs when effective pressure becomes equal to zero.

3. Piping in soil occurs when soil is highly porous.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Ans: C

2. Considerable loss of shear due to shock for disturbance is orbited by

A. Under-consolidated clays -

B. Normally consolidated clays

C. Over-consolidated clays

D. Organic soil

Ans: A

3. Consider the following statements:

In aerial photogrammetry the ‘filter’ is placed in front of the lens to

1. reduce the effect of atmospheric haze. -

2. protect the lens from dust.

3. Provide uniform light distribution over the format.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

 D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

4. A. partially open sluice gate is suddenly raised to its full opening. The resulting surge waves at the gate are

A. a positive wave travels towards, the gate from the upstream side while a negative wave travels downstream from the gate

B. a positive wave travels from the gate onto the upstream side while a positive wave travels downstream from the gate.

C. a negative wave travels from the gate or to the upstream side while a positive wave travels downstream from the gate

D. a negative wave travels towards the gate from the upstream side whereas a positive wave travels downstream from the gate

Ans: C

5. Consider the following statements; Apparent cohesion in sands is exhibited mainly due to

1. Reduction in density.

2. Increase in density.

3., Capillary moisture in pores.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only .

 D. 2 only

Ans: B

6. A catchment of area 200 ha has a runoff coefficient 0.5. A storm of duration larger than the time of concentration of the catchment and of intensity 3.6 cm/h causes a peak discharge (m³/s of

A. 5       

B.10

C.100    

D. 360

Ans: B

7 . Consider the following statements:

The coefficient of permeability k depends upon

1. . Void ratio of the soil.

2. Duration of flow.

3. Equivalent diameter of the soil grains.

4. Shape of the particle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4 only

Ans: C

8. Zigzag deposition and movement of sand on seabeach is called

A.Littoral drift   

B. Beach drift

C.Trough action               

D. Sedimentation

Ans: A

9.‘Iso-centre’ is the point

A. in which the tilted axis of the camera meets the vertical photograph

B. in which the bisector of the angle of tilt meets the vertical photograph

C. in air space, the location of the optical cer of the lens of the camera at the time’ of exposure

D. where the perpendicular from the nodal point meets the photograph

Ans: B

10. Calibration of a current meter which used in channel flow measurement done in a—

A. Wind tunnel

B. Water tunnel

C. Tank

D. None of these

Ans: C

11. A catchment consists of 30% area with runoff coefficient 0.40 with the remaining 70% area with runoff coefficient 0.60. The equivalent runoff coefficient will be

A.0.48  

B. 0.54

C.0.63   

D. 0.76

Ans: B

12. Ombrometer (pluviometer) is used to measure

A. Soil moisture stress of a plant

B. Rainfall depth

C. Leaf area

D. Root zone depth

Ans: B

13. Secondary clarifier of an activated sludge process must be designed for  effluent clarification and solids thickening, both of which relate directly to the

A. Surface area

B. Transport velocity due to sludge withdrawal

C. Gravity settling of solids relative to the water

D. Underflow solids concentration

Ans: B

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The yield of a retaining wall required to reach plastic equilibrium in active case is more than that in positive case.

2. Culman’s graphical method is a simplified version of the more general trial wedge method.

3. For a masonry gravity retaining wall Coulomb’s theory of earth pressure is preferred for designing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Ans: C

15. In the facultative pond systems, the aerobic  zone may get extended downwards due to

A. calm waters along with weak sunlight

B. mixing by wind action along with weak sunlight

C. mixing by wind action along with penetrations by sunlight

D. calm waters along with penetration by sunlight

Ans: C

16. The maximum height of a low gravity dam of elementary profile made of concrete of relative density 2.5 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 3.87 MPa without considering uplift force is about

A.113m

B. 217m

C.279m

D. 325 m

Ans: A

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Westergaard’s theory of stress distribution is more appropriate for soil deposits which exhibit large lateral strain.

2. Newmark’s influence chart can be used for the determination of vertical stress under any slope of a loaded area.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.1 only               

B. 2 only

C. Both I and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D

18. Consider the following devices as likely to concern with water hammer phenomenon in

their design/operation:

1. Hydraulic ram

2. Hydraulic accumulator

3. Penstock

4. Surge tank

5. Draft tube

Which of the above devices is/are so concerned?

A. 1,2,3,4 and 5

B. 1,3 and 4only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Ans: B

19. The wave height, in metres, generated on the surface of a reservoir, having a fetch length F = 30 km. due to wind blowing on the surface of the reservoir at a velocity of 30 km/hr. is

A.0.26 m             

B. 0.96 m

C.0.52 m              

D. 1.2 m

Ans: B

20. A ski-jump bucket is generally used as an energy dissipater  when the tail water

A. is greater than 1.1 times the required conjugate depth for the formation of hydraulic jump; and the river bed rock is ‘good’

B. depth is lesser than the depth required for the jump formation; and the bed of the river channel is composed of ‘sound’ rock

C. depth. is equal to the depth required for the jump formation, and the river bed rock is ‘good’

D. depth is 1.3 times the required for the jump formation, and the river bed is composed of ‘weak’ rock

Ans: B