objective civil engineering questions

objective civil engineering questions
civil engineering objective questions for exams
Based on UPSC IES 2010
Objective Type Questions & Answers In Civil Engineering in MCQ Type
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2.

A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
10.

A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions R_A and R_C will be .
A R_A = —10 kN and R_C = —15 kN
B. R_A =10kN and R_C=—55 kN
C. R_A =—15kN and R_C=—10kN
D. R_A =15kN ànd R_Cc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm².
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm².. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
45.

For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [r_x = 83 mm, r_y= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘L_s and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length L_h, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is

49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero
ANSWERS:

1	A
2	D
3	D
4	C
5	B
6	D
7	D
8	B
9	C
10	C
11	D
12	C
13	D
14	D
15	C
16	A
17	A
18	C
19	C
20	C
21	B
22	B
23	C
24	A
25	A
26	B
27	C
28	B
29	A
30	D
31	A
32	D
33	A
34	A
35	#
36	A
37	A
38	C
39	B
40	A
41	B
42	D
43	D
44	D
45	D
46	B
47	C
48	C
49	C
50	B

Source: http://exams.qoney.com/upsc-ies-civil-engineering-solved-paper-2010-part-1/

Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering

Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering
based on IES 2010 questions
MCQ Civil Engineering quiz
1. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn²
B. 0.75 kN/ rn²
C. 1.35 kN/ rn²
D. 1.50 kN/ rn²
2. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
3.The duration of any activity in case of a PERT programme is calculated as a weighted average of three time estimates namely the optimistic time t_o , the pessimistic time t_p and the most probable time t_m which is given as

4. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
5. Consider the following statements of network:
1. Only one time estimate is required for each activity.
2. Three time estimates for each activity.
3. Time and cost are both controlling factors.
4. It is build-up of event-oriented diagram.
Which of the above statements are correctly applicable to CPM network?
A 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D 3 and 4
6. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
7. A circular shaft which has a diameter of 100 mm is subjected to a torque of 5 kN-m. The shear stress, in N/mm² , induced in the shaft would be
A160/Π
B.120/Π
C.125/Π
D.80/Π
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type)
A. Single angle in roof trusses
B. Double angles in roof trusses
C. Single I section in columns
D. Double I section in columns
List II
(Recommended
Slenderness ratio)
1. 80 — 150
2. 30—60
3. 100- 180
4. 60 — 120
Codes
A B C D
A 3 4 1 2
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 1 4 2
D.2 1 4 3
9.

10. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
11.

12. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
13. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis :‘
1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero.
2. At ultimate collapse load, the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to form a mechanism.
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both land2
14. The base plate of a roof truss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade f_y = 250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area ?
A 30 kN
B. 67.5 kN
C. 90 kN
D. 120 kN
15. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in
bolted joints of tension members is
A 16 times the diameter of the bolt
B. 32 times the diameter of the bolt
C..16 times the thickness of the plate
D. 32 times the thickness of the plate
16. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone she takes no loss than 5 minutes for a call but sometimes as much as an hour. 15 minutes calls are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If the daughter’s calls were to be represented as an activity in PERT project, the expected duration of each phone call is?
A 89/6 minutes
B. 101/6 minutes
C.113/6 minutes
D.125/6 minutes
17

18.A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a concentrated load at mid span. If M_p, is
the plastic moment capacity of the beam, the value of collapse load will be
A. 12M_p/L
B. 8M_p/L
C 6M_p/L
D. 4M_p/L
19. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Shape factor
2. Length of the beam
3. Type of loading
4. Yield strength of material
Which of these affect the influence length of
plastic hinge in a beam?
A. 1 only .
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
21

22. Consider the following statements:
1. PERT is activity-oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
2. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
3. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
23

24.PERT calculator yield a project length of 60 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks. Probability factor, corresponding to 95% probability is 1.647; then the number of weeks required to complete, and project with a probability of 95% is,
A 60.94
B. 62.94
C. 64.94
D. 66.94
25. For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12; the factor of safety in bending stress is 1.5. If the allowable stress is increased by 20% for wind or ,earthquake loads, then the load factor is
A 1.10
B. 1.25
C. 1.35
D 1.40
26. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is driven. The net sectional area of the plate is
A 1800 mm² .
B. 2805 mm²
C. 2820 mm²
D 3242 mm²
27. At a section along the span of a welded plate girder, in which the web is spliced, the bending moment, at a section is M. The girder is comprised of top flange; web and bottom flange plates all of equal areas. The share of the bending moment taken by splice plates would be
A M
B. M/L
C. M/7
D M/13
28. Consider the following stipulations in designing a laced column
1. Single lacing systems on opposite planes shall preferably be in the same direction so that one is the shadow of the other.
2. Lacing bar should be a flat section.
3. The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars for compression shall not exceed l80.
4. Laced compression members are to be provided with tie plates at ends.
Which of the above observations is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4,
D. 1 and 4
29. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
30

31. Consider the following statements:
Entrainment of air in concrete is done so as to
1. Increase the workability.
2. Increase the strength.
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and thawing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
32. Consider the following statements is work breakdown structure
1. It is a graphical representation of entire programme.
2. The Top-Down approach to planning is adopted.
3. The Down-Top approach to planning is adopted.
4. It is suitable for complex projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
33. If P is the percentage of water required for determination of normal consistency of cement, then percentage of water to be added for determination of initial setting time is
A. 0.70P
B. 0.75 P
C. Q.80 P
D. 0.85 P
34. Consider the following statements regarding the. slope of cost-time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by ‘crash cost not divided by crash time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B.2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength of concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
Which of the above statements.is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D.3 only
36. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is
500 kN. The ultimate collapse load of the column is
A 500 kN
B. 662.5 kN
C, 750kN
D.1100 kN
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher. strength than a lean concrete mix since it has more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
38. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm² . and 300 kg/cm² . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
39. Consider . the following statements:
Admixtures are added to concrete to
1. Increase its strength.
2. Reduce heat of hydration.
3. Delay the setting of cement.
4. Reduce water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4.
40. A building contractor discovers from his record that in the last 200 slab castings his mixer machine broke down 21 times. During each breakdown, he had to pay on an average about Rs. 2,500 for idle labour. A standby mixer machine, if hired on the day of slab casting, would cost him Rs. 200 per day. The expected loss is more than the mitigation expense of hiring the mixer by
A Rs. 151.50
B. Rs. 241.50
C. Rs. 262.50
D. Rs. 283.50
41. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
42

The distribution factors for members AE and AC of the box section are
A 0.5 and 0.5
B. 0.6 and 0.4
C. 0.25 and 0.75
D. 1 and zero
43

44.Consider the following activities:
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Erection of formwork
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of formwork
What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities?
A 1—2—3—4
B.2— 1—4—3
C.2—1—3 —4
D.1—3—2—4
45. Which one of the following is relevant to Activity on Node (AON)?
A. Dummy activities may be many
B. There will be no dummy activities
C. It is used for quite complex project
D. It is easier to associate with time flow of activities
46. Consider the following statements about the
air entraining admixture in concrete:
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only.
47.

The RC slab, simply supported on all edges as in above figure, is subjected to a total UDL of 12 kN/m². The maximum shear force! unit length along the edge ‘BC’ is
A 16kN
B. 12kN
C. 8kN
D. 30kN
48.

The above figure indicates a project network; the number at each activity represents its normal duration in days. The critical path is along
A 1—2—3—6—7— 8
B. 1—2 —4—5—7 — 8
C. l—2——5—7— 8
D. 1—2—4—6—7 — 8
49.

50

In the above network, the duration of activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of the activities is along
A 1—2—3—5—7—8
B. 1—2—3—6—7—8 .
C. 1—2—4—5—7—8
D. 1—2—3—4—5—7—8
Answers:

1	A
2	C
3	B
4	D
5	A
6	B
7	D
8	B
9	D
10	B
11	A
12	B
13	D
14	A
15	C
16	D
17	B
18	C
19	C
20	B
21	A
22	D
23	D
24	C
25	D
26	B
27	C
28	D
29	B
30	D
31	C
32	B
33	D
34	C
35	B
36	C
37	A
38	B
39	B
40	#
41	A
42	A
43	D
44	C
45	B
46	A
47	A
48	B
49	C
50	A

Source:http://exams.qoney.com/objective-solved-questions-civil-engineering/

electronics and Communications objective questions

electronics and Communications objective questions

1. When BCC iron is heated, it changes to FCC iron resulting in
(a)contraction -in volume
(b) increase in volume
(c)no change in volume
(d) crack in the material
2. When copper is added to silver in small quantity so as to form an alloy, the resistivity of such an alloy is
(a) equal to the resistivity of copper
(b) equal to the resistivity of silver
(c) greater than the resistivity of copper
(d) in between the resistivity of silver and copper
3. Match List-I (Materials) with List-II (Applications of materials) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Materials) (Applications of materials)
A. Aluminum 1. Current carrying spring
B. Phosphor Bronze 2. Heating element
C. Carbon 3. Commutator brush
D. Ni chrome 4. Telephone chords and trolley wires
Codes:
A B C D
4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
4. When a semiconductor bar is heated at one end, a voltage across the bar is developed. If the heated end is positive, the semiconductor is ?
(a) p-type
(b) n-type
(c) intrinsic
(d) highly degenerate
5. The conductivity of a semiconductor crystal due to any current carrier is NOT proportional to
(a.) mobility of the carrier
(b) effective density of states in the conduction band
(c) electronic charge
(d) surface states in the semiconductor
6. Amplification of ultrasonic waves is possible in a piezoelectric semiconductor under applied electric field. The basic phenomenon involved is known as
(a) Electrostriction
(b) Acousto-optic interaction
(c)Acoustic-electric interaction
(d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
7. Piezoelectric quartz crystal resonators find application where
(a) signal amplification is required
(b) rectification of the signal is required
(c) signal frequency control is required
(d)modulation of signal is required
8. When certain percentage of silicon is added to iron, the resistivity of the iron increase by a factor of 5. If a transformer core is made out of this iron, as compared to the previous value when silicon was not added, the eddy current loss will be
(a) 77%
(b) 80%
(c) 83%
(d) 86%
9. Which of the following are the properties of ferromagnetic domains?
1. Permanent magnetisation
2. Atomic moments in individual domains are all aligned neither parallel to nor perpendicular to one another below Curie point temperature
3. Each domain is magnetically saturated
4. Above Curie temperature, domains disrupt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
10. Match List-I (Insulators) with List-II (Resistivity) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Insulators) (Resistivity)
A. Bakelite 1.10⁵ ohm-cm
B. Window glass 2.10⁹ ohm-cm
C. Pure silica 3.10¹³ ohm-cm
D; Mica 4. 10¹⁷ ohm-cm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
11. Which of the following phenomena is most important when foodstuff is cooked in
a microwave oven?
(a) Resistive Joule heating
(b) Induction heating
(c)Dielectric heating
(d) Radiation heating
12. The frequency dependence of electronic polarizability of a dielectric is obtained by solving the equation:
mx=- ax- 2bx – 2E₀ cos wt. Consider the following statements:
In this equation,
1. a is the restoring force constant, the expression for which is obtained from Coulomb’s law
2. m is the combined mass of electrons and nucleus
3. b is the damping constant occurring due to emission of electromagnetic radiation
4 m x term arises due to altered velocity of electrons orbiting the nucleus in presence of field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c)1,2 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
13. The correct sequence of the following in the increasing order of the values of
permittivity is
(a) Air, Vacuum, TaO₂ Glass
(b) Air, Vacuum, Glass, TaO₂
(c) Vacuum, Air, TaO₂ Glass
(d) Vacuum, Air, Glass, TaO₂
14. Match List-I (Polarization process) with List-Il (Approximate frequency) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Polarization process) (Approximate frequency)
A. Electronic polarization 1. 10² Hz
B. Ionic polarization 2. 10⁵ Hz
C. Orientation polarization 3. 10¹³ Hz
D. Space-charge polarization 4. 10¹⁵ Hz
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
15. Which material among the following possesses excellent dielectric properties and good reliability for use in making capacitors?
(a)Silicon monoxide
(b) Silicon dioxide
(c) Tin oxide
(d) Chromium oxide
16. The most suitable material for making an LDR (Light dependent resistor) is a semiconductor material having
(a) Eg>> hv
(b) Eg > hv
(c) Eg=hV
(d) Eg<
17. Which one of the following is an essential components of electromechanical
relays?
(a)Graphite rod
(b) LED
(c)An electromagnet
(d) MOSFET
18. In a degenerate semiconductor, the majority carriers are controlled by
(a) Fermi-Dirac statistics
(b) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(c) Bose-Einstein (B-E) statistics
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
19. Fermions are the particles, which obey
(a)Maxwell-Boltzmann’s statistics
(b)Bose-Einstein’s statistics
(c Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(d Pauli’s exclusion principle
20. Excess carriers are generated in a sample of N-type semiconductor by shining
light at one end. The current flow in the sample will be made up of
(a) diffusion flow of carriers
(b) drift flow of carriers
(c) both diffusion and drift flow of carriers
(d) neither diffusion nor drift flow of carriers
Answers :
1 : a
2: c
3: c
4: b
5: d
6: a
7: c
8: b
9: c
10: b
11 : b
12 : b
13: b
14: b
15 : d
16 : d
17 : c
18 : a
19 : d
20: a

List of Books For UPSC IES Indian Engineering Services Exam

List of Books For UPSC IES Indian Engineering Services Exam
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UPSC IES Exam  Indian Engineering Services Exam is for Top Engineer Posts in Indian Government and is Conducted By UPSC
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Elecrtical Engineering Questions For UPSC IES

Elecrtical Engineering Questions For UPSC IES

Engineers Fully Solved
Electrical Engineering: Objective Questions with Answers
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ADVANCED ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Electrical Engineering Interview Questions.
These MCQ questions are very useful for
UPSC IES Exam
UPSC Civil Services Prelims Electrical Engg
1.If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased hr 50% and the frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming that the magnetic circuit remains unsaturated), the maximum core flax density will
(a) change to three times the original value
(b) change to 1.5 times the original value
(c) change to 0.5 times as the original value
(d) remain the same as the original value
2. The low—voltage winding of a core type transformer is subdivided into two equal halves, each of half the original width of the single winding will the high voltage winding in between (instead of having the usual construction of low-voltage winding adjacent to the core and surrounded by the high-voltage winding). Such an interlacing of coils would make the combined primary and secondary leakage reactance (in terms of primary) nearly.
(a)twice
(b) equal
(c)half
(d) one -fourth
3. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected transformers are supplied from the same source. One of the transformers is of. Dy I and the other is of Dy II / connection. The phase difference between the corresponding phase voltages of the secondaries would he
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°
4. In a transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of harmonics k the
(a) overload
(b) poor insulation
(c) iron loss
(d) saturation of core
5. A 40 kVA transformer/ a core loss of400 W and a full load copper of of 800 W. The proportion of full-load at maximum efficiency is
(a)50%
(b) 62.3%
(c) 70.7%
(d)100 %
6.A single phase transformer has rating of 15 KVA 600 / 120 V. It is recommended as an auto transformer to supply at 720 V from a 600 V primary source. The maximum load it can supply is ?
(a)90 kVA
(b)18 kVA
(c)15 kVA
(d) 12 kVA
7. Equalizing pulses in TV are placed during the
(a) vertical blanking period
(b) horizontal blanking period
(c)serration
(d) horizontal retrace
8. The most useful approach to radar system for monitoring the speed of moving vehicles is:
(a) Pulsed radar
(b) Monopulse
(c)Doppler radar
(d) Auto tracking radar
9. A. dc shunt generator, when driven at its rated speed, is found to he not generating any voltage. Which of the following would account for this?
I. There is no residual magnetism
2. The connection of the field winding is not proper with respect to the armature terminals.
3. The resistance of the field circuit is greater than the critical field resistance.
4. The load resistance is less than the critical armature resistance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)3 and 4
(b)l,2 and 4
(c)1,2 and 3
(d)l.2,3 and 4
10. To have spark/as commutation, the armature reaction effect in a dc machine is neutralised by
(a) using compensating winding and commutating poles
(b) Shifting the brush axis from the geometrical neutral axis to the magnetic neutral axis
(c) fixing the brush axis in line with the pole axis
(d) increasing the field excitation
11.In a dc shunt general or working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the direction of rotation, as a result of this, commutation will
(a)improve but terminal voltage will fall -
(b)worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) worsen and terminal voltage will rise
12. Consider the following statements:
The maximum range of radar can be increased by
1. increasing the peak transmitted power
2. increasing the gain of the receiver
3. increasing the diameter of the antenna
4. reducing the wavelength used
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d)1 and 3 are correct
13. Consider the following statements about broadband communication using submarine cables:
1. A submarine cable repeater contains filters for the two directions of transmits
2. Armored submarine cable is used for the shallow-shore ends of the cable.
3. Fibre optic submarine cable is used to prevent inadvertent ploughing in of the cable
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
14. A dc overcompounded generator was operating satisfactorily and supplying power to an infinite bus when the prime mover failed to supply any mechanical power. The machine would then run as a ?
(a) cumulatively compounded motor with speed reversed
(b) cumulatively compounded motor with direction of rotation as before
(c) differentially compounded motor with speed reversed
(d) differentially compounded motor with direction of speed as before.
15 To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, It is best to use a
(a) slotted line
(b) balun
(c)directional coupler
(a) quarter-wave transformer
16. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(a) damping toruqe
(b) eddy current torque
(c)torques aiding the developing torque
(d) no torque
17. For a given developed power, a synchronous motor operating from a constant voltage and constant frequency supply, will draw the minimum and maximum armature currents, Imin and Imax respectively, corresponding to?
(a)Imin at unity pf, but Imax at zero pf
(b) Imax at unity p, but Imin at zero p1
(c) both Imin and Imax at unity pf
(d )both Imin and Imax at zero pf
18. Consider the folio wing statements regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive
2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 180
4. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 360
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
19 While conducting a “slip “ test for determination of direct and quadrature axis synchronous reactance ‘Xd’ and ‘Xq’ of salient pole synchronous machine, the rotor of the machine is run with a slip ‘s’ and stator supply frequency ‘f’. The frequency of
1. voltage induced across open field terminals,
2. envelope of the armature terminal voltage.
3. envelope of the armature current, and
4. armature current
will be respectively
(a) sf, sf,sf and f
(b) sf, f,sf and f
(c) f, sf,f and af
(d) f, (1-s)f,(2-s)f and sf
20. If two induction motors A and B are identical except that the air-gap of motor ‘A ‘ is 59% greater than that of motor ‘B’, then
(a) the no-load power factor of A will be better than that of B.
(b) the no-load power factor of A will be poorer than that of B.
(c) the core losses of A will be more than those of B
(d) the operating flux of A will be smaller than that of B.
21 A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous motor and an 8-pole, 50 Hz. 3—phase slipring induction motor are mechanically coupled and operate on the some 3-phase, 50 Hz supply system If they are left open-circuited, then the frequency of the voltage produced across any two slip rings would be?
(a) 12.5 Hz
(b) 25.0 Hz
(c) 37.5 Hz
(d) 50.0 Hz
22. Which of the following statements regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor are correct?
I. It prevents cogging;
2. It produces more uniform torque.
3. it increases starting torque.
4. It reduces motor ‘hum’ during its operation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a)2,3 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c)1,3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 4
23. The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor copper loss will be
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W
(d) 700 W
24. If an input signal with non-zero dc component is applied to a low pass RC network, the dc component in the output will be ?
(a) the same as that in the input
(b) less than that in the input
(c) more than that in the input
(d) zero
25. A 3 phase wound rotor induction motor, when started with load connected to its shaft, was found to start but settle down at about half synchronous speed. If the rotor winding as well as the stator winding were star connected, then the cause of the malfunction could be attributed to
(a) one of the stator phase windings being short–circuited
(b) one of the supply fuses being blown
(c) one of the rotor phases being open-circuited
(d) two of the rotor phases being open circuited
26. Consider the following statements regarding fractional horse power shaded-pole motor:
1. Its direction of rotation is from unshaded to shaded portion of the poles.
2.. Its direction of rotation is from shaded to unshaded portion of the poles.
3. It can remain stalled for short periods without any harm.
4. It has a very poor power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
27. In the case of a converter-inverter speed control arrangement f an induction motor operating with v/f constant and with negligible stator impedance.
(a) the maximum torque is independent of frequency
(b) the maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(c) the slip at maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(d) the starting torque is proportional to frequency
28 An amplifier with mid-band gain A = 500 has negative feedback beta = 1/100 the upper cut-off without feedback were at 60 kHz, then with feedback it would become
(a) 10kHz
(b) 12kHz
(c) 300 kHz
(d) 360 kHz
29. If the discharge is 1 m cube and the head of water is 1 m then the power generated by the alternator in one hour (assume 100% efficiency of generator and turbine) will be
(a) 10kW
(b) 73/75kW
(c) 746/75kW
(d) 100kw
30. Control rods used In unclear reactors are made of
(a) zirconium
(b) boron
(c) beryllium
(d) lead
31. if alpha = 0.98, Ico=6 microA I beta =100 microA for a transistor, Then the value of Ic will he
(a) 2.3mA
(b) 3.lmA
(c) 4.6mA
(d) 5.2mA
32. In a 3-core extra-high voltage cable, a metallic screen around each core-insulation is provided to
(a) facilitate heat dissipation
(h) give mechanic strength
(c) obtain radial electric stress
(d) obtain longitudinal electric stress
33. Galloping In transmission line conductors arises generally due to
(a) asymmetrical layers of ice formation
(b) vortex phenomenon in light winds
(c) heavy weight of the line conductors
(d) adoption of horizontal conductor configurations
34.. In a 3- phase rectifier circuit, thyristor number 1, 2 and 3 are connected respectively to R, Y and B phases of the star-connected transformer secondary. When the current is being commutated front thyristor No. 1 to No. 2, the effect of the transformer leakage and the ac system Inductance will be such that it will?
(a) Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and delay the turn on of No. 2 correspondingly.
(b) stop the conduction in No. 1 at the scheduled time, but delay the turn on of No. 2
(c) produce conduction in both No. 1 and No. 2 in parallel for an overlapping period through a transient
(d) double the voltage output through a commutation transient
35. The incremental generating costs of two generating units are given by
IC1=0.10 X + 20 Rs /MWhr
IC1=0.15 Y + 18 Rs /MWhr
where X and V are power generated by the two units in MW.
For a total demand of 300 MW, the value (in MW) of X and Y will be respectively
(a) 172 and 123
(b) 123 and 172
(c) 175 and 125
(d) 200 and 100
36. Consider the following statements:
To provide reliable protection for a distribution transformer against over voltages using lightning arrestors, it is essential that the
1. lead resistance is high.
2. distance between the transformer and the arrestor is small
3. transformer and the arrestor have a common inter-connecting ground.
4. Spark over voltage of the arrestor is greater than the residual voltage.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
37. The reflection coefficient of a short-circuited line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
38.Iif an intrinsic semiconductors is doped with a very small amount of born then in the extrinsic semiconductor so farmed, the number of electrons and holes will
(a)decrease
(b) increase and decrease respectively
(c)increase
(d) decrease and increase respectively
39. Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to
(a) reduce weight of copper
(b) improve stability
(c) reduce corona
(d) increase power transmission capacity
40. In the solution of load-flow equation, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is superior to the Gauss- Seidel (GS) method, because the
(a) time taken to perform one iteration in the NR method is less When compared to the time taken in the OS method
(b) number of iterations required in the NR method is more when compared to that in the GS method
(c) number of iterations required is not independent of the size of the system in the NR method
(d) convergence characteristics of the NR method are not affected by the selection of slack bus
41. In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a conventional winding rotor because of
(a) higher efficiency
(b) increased steady-state stability limit
(c) higher short-circuit ratio
(d) better damping
42. Consider the following statements regarding speed control of induction motors by means of external rotor resistors:
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by reduced efficiency.
2. With a large resistance in the rotor circuit, the speed would vary considerably with variation in torque
3. The method is very complicated
The Disadvantages of such a method of speed control would include
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
43. Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are in ?
(a) grounded star/delta
(b) delta/star
(c) star/grounded star
(d) delta/delta
44. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The Zero Sequence current in this case will be
(a) zero
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 66.6A
(d) 100 A
45. Consider the following statements:
Switched mode power supplies are preferred over the continuous types, because they are
1. suitable for use in both ac and dc.
2; more efficient,
3. suitable for low-power circuits.
4. suitable for high-power circuits.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
46. The power generated by two plants are P1 = 50MW, P2= 40 MW.
If the loss coefficients are B11 = 0.001, B22 = 0.0025 and B12 = -0.0005, the power loss will be
(a)5.5 MW
(b) 6.5 MW
(c) 4.5Mw
(d) 8.5 MW
47. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum when then duty cycle is?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.9
48. The following data pertain to two alternators working in parallel and supplying a total load of 80 MW:
Machine 1 : 40 MVA with 5% speed regulation
Machine 2: 60 MVA with 5% speed regulation
The load sharing between machines 1 and 2 will be
(a)P1/48MW, P2/32MW
(b) 40MW. 40MW
(c)30MW,50MW
(d) 32 MW. 48MW
49. The per unit impedance of a synchronous machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is Increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value will be
(a)0.266
(b) 0.242
(c)0.220
(d) 0.200
50. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive load at a firing angle of alpha = 60°. The average value of current flowing in the load is 10 A, If a very large inductance is connected in the load circuit, then the
(a) average value of current will remain as 10 A
(b) average value of current wilt become greater than 10 A
(c) average value of current will become less than 10 A
(d) trend of variation of current cannot be predicted unless the exact value of the inductance connected is known

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