GK Geography questions for IES
GK for IES General Ability
1. Which one is associated with the work of gladers?
(a) Corrosion
(b) Attrition
(c) Corrosion
(d) Plucking
ANSWER (D)
2.Arrange the following soil particle by size in the descending order
I. Gravel
ll. Clay
III. Silt
IV. Sand
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, Il, III, I
(c) I, IV, Ill, II
(d) III, IV, I, II
ANSWER (C)
3. Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) I, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (D)
4.Which is the proper order of seismic waves as they are received at seismograph station ?
(a) L-wave, P-wave, S-wave
(b) P-wave, L-wave, S-wave
(c) P-wave, S-wave, L-wave
(d) S-wave, P-wave, L-wave
ANSWER (C)
5. The epicenter of an earthquake is the :
(a) point where P-waves touch the surface
(b) nearest point to the surface from the focus perpendicular to the earth’s surface
(c) point of intersection of P and 5 wave fronts
(d) antipodal point
ANSWER (B)
6. Which of the following belts are associated with seismic activity?
1. Circum-Pacific Belt
2. Circum-Atlantic Belt
3. Mid-Continental Belt
4. Mid-Atlantic Belt
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (B)
7.The movement inside the Earth’s crust is studied by
(a) Geodesy
(b) Geology
(c) Plate Tectonics
(d) Seisrnology
ANSWER (D)
8. Consider the following rocks
1. Coal
2. Dolerite
3. Granite
4. Limestone
Which of the above is/are sedimentary rocks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 r
(d) 4 only
ANSWER (C)
9. Match the following:
Highest peak Country
A. Mount Logan 1. Australia
B. Mount McKinley 2. USA
C. Mount Kosciusko 3. Canada
' A B C
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1
(d ) 2 3 1
ANSWER (C)
10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of increasing depth '?
(a) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(b) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(c) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
(d) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
ANSWER (C)
11. Given below are names of four oceans :
1. Atlantic
2. Arctic
3. Indian
4. Pacific
The correct order of these oceans from the Smallest to the biggest in terms of area is.:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
ANSWER (B)
12. In which one of the following is Malta Located?
(a)Baltic sea
(b) mediterranean sea
(c) Black Sea .
(d) North Sea
ANSWER (B)
13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Most reef-forming corals prefer sea temperature between 17 °C and 33 °c
(b) Coral growth is usually restricted to the upper 25 or 30 m of the sea
(c) Coral animals belong to the organisms of Phylum Porifera
(d) Coral animals live in a mutualistic relationship with algae
ANSWER (B)
14.The important fishing areas called Grand Bank and Georges Bank located in the waters
of which one of the following?
(a) North Pacific
(b) South Pacific
(c) South-west Atlantic
(d) North-west Atlantic
ANSWER (D)
15.Match the following :
A. Fringing 1. wide coral reef separated
Reef from the coastline by a
wide deep lagoon
B. Barrier 2. uneven platform of coral
Reef separated from the
mainland by a narrow
shallow lagoon
C. Atoll 3. circular/elliptical/horse
shoe shaped coral reef
enclosing a lagoon
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2
ANSWER (A)
16.What is the correct decreasing order of the share of different salts in sea water ?
(a) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,magnesium sulphate, potassium
sulphate
(b) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium sulphate
(c) sodium chloride, magnesium sulphate,potassium sulphate, magnesium chloride
(d) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium
sulphate
ANSWER (A)
17.Sunda Trench lies in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Antarctic Ocean
ANSWER (C)
18.Coral reefs are formed by
(a) volcanic rocks
(b) marine sediments
(c) chlorine material precipitated from seawater
(d) tiny colonial marine animals which construct limestone skeleton material
ANSWER (D)
19.Which one of the following is correct ?
Benguela current flows
(a) along Brazilian coast
(b) off Southwest African coast
(c) off Spanish and North African coast
(d) along West coast of United States
ANSWER (B)
20. Consider the following countries :
1. Algeria
2. Morocco
3. Mauritania
Which of these border(s) the Mediterranean
Sea?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER (B)
Monday, December 12, 2011
Friday, December 9, 2011
Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA
Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA
Geography Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper for general awareness in UPSC IES
1.In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum ?
(a) During autumn
(b) After summer
(d) During winter
(d) During monsoon
ANSWER (B)
2.Tropical evergreen forests remain evergreen because :
(a) there is a thick undergrowth of bushes
(b) they do not shed their leaves
(c) shedding of leaves and simultaneous growth of new ones takes place
throughout the year
(d) while plants at one level shed their leaves, those at a higher level retain their
leaves
ANSWER (C)
3.Which of the following deserts does not lie in the Northern Hemisphere ?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Thar
ANSWER (B)
4.The hottest place in the world is 1
(a) Tehran, Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, india
(c) Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia, Libya
ANSWER (D)
5.Deserts such as Sahara are generally found between 20° and 30° latitudes in western
parts of the continents. This is because these regions :
(a) are very hot throughout the year
(b) have offshore winds throughout the year
(c) have warm offshore currents i
(d) lie in the belt of the doldrums
ANSWER (B)
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Steppes are the temperate grasslands of South America
(b) Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America
(c) Pampas are the temperate grasslands of South Australia
(d) Forests with trees which do not shed their leaves seasonally are called deciduous
forests
ANSWER (B)
7. Coniferous forests are in the region of :
(a) high humidity and high temperature
(b) low rainfall and very low temperature throughout the year
(c) low mean annual temperature throughout the year and very cold winter
(d) heavy rainfall and high temperature during summer
ANSWER (B)
8.Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as :
(a) Dry deciduous
(b) Dry evergreen
(c) Tropical moist deciduous
(d) Tropical moist evergreen
ANSWER (C)
9.Which of the following regions bear mainly the Coniferous forests ?
(a) Southern part of India
(b) South America
(c) Southern island of New Zealand
(d) Central, Eastern and Western parts of North America
ANSWER (D)
10.Many Savanna regions are unable to support good crops because:
(a) They have large tall grasses which form a canopy over the good crops and do not
allow them to grow
(b) There are large numbers of animals in this region, which eat up the crops
(c) The climate is too hot for the crops to grow
(d)they have poor lateritic soil
ANSWER (A)
11. Wine production is mainly carried out in Which of the following natural regions?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Savanna
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Coniferous forests
ANSWER (C)
12. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct '?
(a) Coniferous forests of high latitudes yield soft wood
(b) Between 2000 m and 3000 m elevation on the Himalayas grow, deodar, chinar
and walnut ,
(c) Forests in equatorial regions of India are less dense than the monsoon forests
(d) Large-scale exploitation of forests has caused soil erosion and repeated floods
ANSWER (C)
13. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
safari ?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial regions
(c) Temperate Grassland regions
(d) Savanna or Tropical Grassland regions
ANSWER (D)
14. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) desert and savanna regions
ANSWER (B)
15. Which climatic region has the least temperature range ?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Tropical region
(d) Mediterranean region '
ANSWER (A)
16. The Veld grassland of South Africa experiences:
(a) the Continental Savanna Climate
(b) the Maritime Savanna Climate
(c) the Steppe climate
(d) the Tropical desert climate
ANSWER (C)
17. The Taiga belt lies between:
(a) Mediterranean climate and Tundra
(b) Monsoon climate and Tundra
(c) Temperate grasslands and Tundra
(d) Tibet type climate and Tundra
ANSWER (C)
18. The Tropical Rain forest type of climate is characterized by
(a) average rainfall of about 300 cm
(b) heavy rain and high temperatures throughout the year
(c) hot dry summer and mild wet winters
(d) hot summer and cool winters with about 100 cm of annual rainfall
ANSWER (B)
19.Factory farming is the characteristic of
(a) north-western North America
(b) north-western Europe
(c) eastern Europe
(d) south-east Asia
ANSWER (B)
20. The zones of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year
correspond to ?
(a) Alpine meadows
(b) Antarctica
(c) Arctic deserts
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (D)
Geography Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper for general awareness in UPSC IES
1.In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum ?
(a) During autumn
(b) After summer
(d) During winter
(d) During monsoon
ANSWER (B)
2.Tropical evergreen forests remain evergreen because :
(a) there is a thick undergrowth of bushes
(b) they do not shed their leaves
(c) shedding of leaves and simultaneous growth of new ones takes place
throughout the year
(d) while plants at one level shed their leaves, those at a higher level retain their
leaves
ANSWER (C)
3.Which of the following deserts does not lie in the Northern Hemisphere ?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Thar
ANSWER (B)
4.The hottest place in the world is 1
(a) Tehran, Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, india
(c) Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia, Libya
ANSWER (D)
5.Deserts such as Sahara are generally found between 20° and 30° latitudes in western
parts of the continents. This is because these regions :
(a) are very hot throughout the year
(b) have offshore winds throughout the year
(c) have warm offshore currents i
(d) lie in the belt of the doldrums
ANSWER (B)
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Steppes are the temperate grasslands of South America
(b) Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America
(c) Pampas are the temperate grasslands of South Australia
(d) Forests with trees which do not shed their leaves seasonally are called deciduous
forests
ANSWER (B)
7. Coniferous forests are in the region of :
(a) high humidity and high temperature
(b) low rainfall and very low temperature throughout the year
(c) low mean annual temperature throughout the year and very cold winter
(d) heavy rainfall and high temperature during summer
ANSWER (B)
8.Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as :
(a) Dry deciduous
(b) Dry evergreen
(c) Tropical moist deciduous
(d) Tropical moist evergreen
ANSWER (C)
9.Which of the following regions bear mainly the Coniferous forests ?
(a) Southern part of India
(b) South America
(c) Southern island of New Zealand
(d) Central, Eastern and Western parts of North America
ANSWER (D)
10.Many Savanna regions are unable to support good crops because:
(a) They have large tall grasses which form a canopy over the good crops and do not
allow them to grow
(b) There are large numbers of animals in this region, which eat up the crops
(c) The climate is too hot for the crops to grow
(d)they have poor lateritic soil
ANSWER (A)
11. Wine production is mainly carried out in Which of the following natural regions?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Savanna
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Coniferous forests
ANSWER (C)
12. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct '?
(a) Coniferous forests of high latitudes yield soft wood
(b) Between 2000 m and 3000 m elevation on the Himalayas grow, deodar, chinar
and walnut ,
(c) Forests in equatorial regions of India are less dense than the monsoon forests
(d) Large-scale exploitation of forests has caused soil erosion and repeated floods
ANSWER (C)
13. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
safari ?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial regions
(c) Temperate Grassland regions
(d) Savanna or Tropical Grassland regions
ANSWER (D)
14. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) desert and savanna regions
ANSWER (B)
15. Which climatic region has the least temperature range ?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Tropical region
(d) Mediterranean region '
ANSWER (A)
16. The Veld grassland of South Africa experiences:
(a) the Continental Savanna Climate
(b) the Maritime Savanna Climate
(c) the Steppe climate
(d) the Tropical desert climate
ANSWER (C)
17. The Taiga belt lies between:
(a) Mediterranean climate and Tundra
(b) Monsoon climate and Tundra
(c) Temperate grasslands and Tundra
(d) Tibet type climate and Tundra
ANSWER (C)
18. The Tropical Rain forest type of climate is characterized by
(a) average rainfall of about 300 cm
(b) heavy rain and high temperatures throughout the year
(c) hot dry summer and mild wet winters
(d) hot summer and cool winters with about 100 cm of annual rainfall
ANSWER (B)
19.Factory farming is the characteristic of
(a) north-western North America
(b) north-western Europe
(c) eastern Europe
(d) south-east Asia
ANSWER (B)
20. The zones of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year
correspond to ?
(a) Alpine meadows
(b) Antarctica
(c) Arctic deserts
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (D)
Sunday, August 7, 2011
Solved model paper ONGC Class-I Executive Graduate-Trainee Jobs
Solved model paper ONGC Class-I Executive Graduate-Trainee Jobs
Electronics Model Questions For ONGC Graduate Trainees
Free online practice paper ongcindia.com ONGC Recruitment Graduate Trainee
1. The field winding of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited directly. If a 3-phase balanced voltage is impressed across the stator terminals, then the rotor will
(a) Rotate at. Synchronous speed
(b) Rotate at a speed slightly less than synchronous speed
(c) Rotate at a speed very near to half the synchronous speed
(d) Not rotate at all
Ans:-A
2. The positive, negative and zero sequence currents of a star connected load for phase R are given as
IR1 = (l0-j7) A
IR2 = (5+j15) A
JR9 = (5 —j8) A
The neutral current will be
(a) Zero
(b) (15 + j 24)
(c) (-15- j 24) A
(d) (15 – j 24) A
Ans:-A
3. In a synchronous machine, the electric circuits are armature circuit, field circuit and damper circuit and X d is d-axis synchronous reactance; X d is d-axis transient synchronous reactance and X’ is d-axis sub-transient synchronous reactance. If there is no damper winding, then
(a) X’d = X” d
(b) X’’ d = X d
(c) X’d = X d
(d) X d = X’d = X’d
Ans:-A
4. For a given load, the speed of shaded-pole single- phase induction motor fluctuates slightly because
(a) The speed of the magnetic field is not constant
(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field is not constant
(c) The motor operates at higher value of slips
(d) The motor is used with fluctuating load
Ans:-B
5. Two separate induction motors having 6 poles and 4 poles are cascaded 3-phase, 400 V, 60 Hz is the supply to the motors. The synchronous speeds (in rpm) of cascaded set will be
(a) 720, 1200, 1800 and 2400
(b) 600, 1000, 1500 and 3000
(c) 720, 1200, 1800 and 3600
(d) 600, 1200, 1800 and 2400
Ans:-C
6. A separately excited dc motor is fed from a phase- controlled converter. The motor exhibits poor speed regulation. This is due to the
(a) Inductive voltage drop of the converter and possible discontintious conduction
(b) Harmonics in the armature current
(c) Large inductance of the load current
(d) Poor power factor of the converter
Ans:-A
7. A drive suitable for low-speed high-power reversible application is the
(a) Synchro converter-fed ac drive
(b) Current source inverter-fed ac drive
(c) Voltage source (square wave) inverter-fed drive
(d) Induction motor fed from ac voltage supply
Ans:-C
8. The advantage of dual converter in the circulatory current mode is
(a) The low loss in the converter
(b) That it permits dynamic braking of connected motor
(c) The lower cost of the equipment
(d) Faster response
Ans:-D
9. A six-pulse non-reversible thyritorised 415 V ac converter is controlling a 440 V dc motor. If total drop in the circuit is limited to 10%, then the converter must be locked at an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 600
(c) 450
(d) 900
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following statements is correct in connection with Inverters?
(a) Both voltage source inverter and current source inverter require feedback diodes
(b) The current source inverter requires feedback diodes
(c) GTO’s can be used only in the current source inverters
(d) The voltage source inverter requires feedback diodes
Ans:-A
11. Consider a dc to dc converter (chopper) having a load resistance of 10 .0 and an Input voltage of 232 V. If the voltage drop across the converter during ON time is 2 V and the frequency of operation is1 kHz at a duty cycle of 0.4, then the average output voltage of the converter will be
(a) 94.0 V
(b) 92.8 V
(c) 92.0 V
(d) 90.8 V
Ans:-C
12. Match List I (device of thyristor family) with List II (characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
A. Asymmetrical thyristor
B. Amplifying gate thyristor
C. Triac
D. GTO
List II
1. Poor turn-off gain
2. Good di / dt capability
3. Poor reverse blocking capability
4. Good turn-off
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans:-B
13. The dv/dt protection of an SCR is achieved by using
(a) RL circuit in series with SCR
(b) RC circuit across SCR
(c) L in series with SCR
(d) RC circuit in series with SCR
Ans:-B
14. Nominal-II model is normally used for evaluating the performance of
(a) Short line
(b) Medium line
(c) Long line
(d) Infinite line
Ans:-C
15. The A, B, C constants of a nominal T-circuit are given as
A = 0.95 / 0.5°
B = 85 / 70° ohm
C = 0.0005 / 90° ohm
If the two terminal voltages are held constants at 66 kV, then the steady-slate stability limit of the line will be
(a) 0.3312 MW
(b) 3.312 MW
(c) 33.12 MW
(d) 331.2 MW
Ans:-C
16. A feeder with reactance of 0.2p.u has a sending- end voltage of 1.2 p. u . If the reactive power supplied at the receiving end of the feeder is 0.3 p. u , the approximate voltage drop in the feeder will be
(a) 0.042 p. u.
(b) 0.052 p.u.
(c) 0.060 p.u.
(d) 0.070 p.u.
Ans:-B
17. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system network?
(a) Bus incidence matrix
(b) Primitive impedance matrix
(c) Primitive admittance matrix
(d) Bus impedance matrix
Ans:-C
18. A fault occurring on an end-supplied transmission line is more severe from the point of view of RRRV if it is a
(a) Long line fault
(b) Short line fault
(c) Medium line fault
(d) Generator fault
Ans:-D
19. The insulation strength of EHV lines is mainly governed by
(a) Switching overvoltages
(b) Lightning overvoltages
(c) Power frequency overvoltages
(d) Dynamic overvoltages
Ans:-A
20. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) Zero
Ans:-A
21. Which one of the following types of linear couplers is used for extremely reliable high-speed bus protection?
(a) Mutual inductors wound on non-magneic torodial cores
(b) Mutual inductors wound on magnetic torodial cores
(c) Capacitor voltage transformers
(d) Wire-wound resistors
Ans:-C
22. A relay most likely to operate undesirably on power swings is the
(a) Over-current relay
(b) Inverse definite minimum time relay
(c) Mho relay
(d) Reactance relay
Ans:-C
23. The inductance and capacitance of a line are respectively 1.0 H and 0.01 pF. If the
Instantaneous value of interrupted current is 10 A, the voltage across the breaker contacts will be
(a) 125kV
(b) 100kV
(c) 75 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans:-B
24. Which of the following reason make HRC fuses preferable in power circuits?
1. They have inverse time characteristics.
2. They are consistent in performance
3. They can be selected for proper discrimination.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-C
25. For a 12-pulse operation of HVDC converters, the most troublesome set of harmonics on the ac side is
(a) 23rd and 25 th
(b) 12th and 24th
(c) ll th and l3th
(d) 5th and 7th
Ans:-D
Electronics Model Questions For ONGC Graduate Trainees
Free online practice paper ongcindia.com ONGC Recruitment Graduate Trainee
1. The field winding of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited directly. If a 3-phase balanced voltage is impressed across the stator terminals, then the rotor will
(a) Rotate at. Synchronous speed
(b) Rotate at a speed slightly less than synchronous speed
(c) Rotate at a speed very near to half the synchronous speed
(d) Not rotate at all
Ans:-A
2. The positive, negative and zero sequence currents of a star connected load for phase R are given as
IR1 = (l0-j7) A
IR2 = (5+j15) A
JR9 = (5 —j8) A
The neutral current will be
(a) Zero
(b) (15 + j 24)
(c) (-15- j 24) A
(d) (15 – j 24) A
Ans:-A
3. In a synchronous machine, the electric circuits are armature circuit, field circuit and damper circuit and X d is d-axis synchronous reactance; X d is d-axis transient synchronous reactance and X’ is d-axis sub-transient synchronous reactance. If there is no damper winding, then
(a) X’d = X” d
(b) X’’ d = X d
(c) X’d = X d
(d) X d = X’d = X’d
Ans:-A
4. For a given load, the speed of shaded-pole single- phase induction motor fluctuates slightly because
(a) The speed of the magnetic field is not constant
(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field is not constant
(c) The motor operates at higher value of slips
(d) The motor is used with fluctuating load
Ans:-B
5. Two separate induction motors having 6 poles and 4 poles are cascaded 3-phase, 400 V, 60 Hz is the supply to the motors. The synchronous speeds (in rpm) of cascaded set will be
(a) 720, 1200, 1800 and 2400
(b) 600, 1000, 1500 and 3000
(c) 720, 1200, 1800 and 3600
(d) 600, 1200, 1800 and 2400
Ans:-C
6. A separately excited dc motor is fed from a phase- controlled converter. The motor exhibits poor speed regulation. This is due to the
(a) Inductive voltage drop of the converter and possible discontintious conduction
(b) Harmonics in the armature current
(c) Large inductance of the load current
(d) Poor power factor of the converter
Ans:-A
7. A drive suitable for low-speed high-power reversible application is the
(a) Synchro converter-fed ac drive
(b) Current source inverter-fed ac drive
(c) Voltage source (square wave) inverter-fed drive
(d) Induction motor fed from ac voltage supply
Ans:-C
8. The advantage of dual converter in the circulatory current mode is
(a) The low loss in the converter
(b) That it permits dynamic braking of connected motor
(c) The lower cost of the equipment
(d) Faster response
Ans:-D
9. A six-pulse non-reversible thyritorised 415 V ac converter is controlling a 440 V dc motor. If total drop in the circuit is limited to 10%, then the converter must be locked at an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 600
(c) 450
(d) 900
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following statements is correct in connection with Inverters?
(a) Both voltage source inverter and current source inverter require feedback diodes
(b) The current source inverter requires feedback diodes
(c) GTO’s can be used only in the current source inverters
(d) The voltage source inverter requires feedback diodes
Ans:-A
11. Consider a dc to dc converter (chopper) having a load resistance of 10 .0 and an Input voltage of 232 V. If the voltage drop across the converter during ON time is 2 V and the frequency of operation is1 kHz at a duty cycle of 0.4, then the average output voltage of the converter will be
(a) 94.0 V
(b) 92.8 V
(c) 92.0 V
(d) 90.8 V
Ans:-C
12. Match List I (device of thyristor family) with List II (characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
A. Asymmetrical thyristor
B. Amplifying gate thyristor
C. Triac
D. GTO
List II
1. Poor turn-off gain
2. Good di / dt capability
3. Poor reverse blocking capability
4. Good turn-off
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans:-B
13. The dv/dt protection of an SCR is achieved by using
(a) RL circuit in series with SCR
(b) RC circuit across SCR
(c) L in series with SCR
(d) RC circuit in series with SCR
Ans:-B
14. Nominal-II model is normally used for evaluating the performance of
(a) Short line
(b) Medium line
(c) Long line
(d) Infinite line
Ans:-C
15. The A, B, C constants of a nominal T-circuit are given as
A = 0.95 / 0.5°
B = 85 / 70° ohm
C = 0.0005 / 90° ohm
If the two terminal voltages are held constants at 66 kV, then the steady-slate stability limit of the line will be
(a) 0.3312 MW
(b) 3.312 MW
(c) 33.12 MW
(d) 331.2 MW
Ans:-C
16. A feeder with reactance of 0.2p.u has a sending- end voltage of 1.2 p. u . If the reactive power supplied at the receiving end of the feeder is 0.3 p. u , the approximate voltage drop in the feeder will be
(a) 0.042 p. u.
(b) 0.052 p.u.
(c) 0.060 p.u.
(d) 0.070 p.u.
Ans:-B
17. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system network?
(a) Bus incidence matrix
(b) Primitive impedance matrix
(c) Primitive admittance matrix
(d) Bus impedance matrix
Ans:-C
18. A fault occurring on an end-supplied transmission line is more severe from the point of view of RRRV if it is a
(a) Long line fault
(b) Short line fault
(c) Medium line fault
(d) Generator fault
Ans:-D
19. The insulation strength of EHV lines is mainly governed by
(a) Switching overvoltages
(b) Lightning overvoltages
(c) Power frequency overvoltages
(d) Dynamic overvoltages
Ans:-A
20. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) Zero
Ans:-A
21. Which one of the following types of linear couplers is used for extremely reliable high-speed bus protection?
(a) Mutual inductors wound on non-magneic torodial cores
(b) Mutual inductors wound on magnetic torodial cores
(c) Capacitor voltage transformers
(d) Wire-wound resistors
Ans:-C
22. A relay most likely to operate undesirably on power swings is the
(a) Over-current relay
(b) Inverse definite minimum time relay
(c) Mho relay
(d) Reactance relay
Ans:-C
23. The inductance and capacitance of a line are respectively 1.0 H and 0.01 pF. If the
Instantaneous value of interrupted current is 10 A, the voltage across the breaker contacts will be
(a) 125kV
(b) 100kV
(c) 75 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans:-B
24. Which of the following reason make HRC fuses preferable in power circuits?
1. They have inverse time characteristics.
2. They are consistent in performance
3. They can be selected for proper discrimination.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-C
25. For a 12-pulse operation of HVDC converters, the most troublesome set of harmonics on the ac side is
(a) 23rd and 25 th
(b) 12th and 24th
(c) ll th and l3th
(d) 5th and 7th
Ans:-D
electrical engineering objective questions
electrical engineering objective questions
Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers
multiple choice questions in electrical engineering
1. A shunt motor is running at its rated speed on rated load. If the field circuit gets suddenly openedElectrical Engineering Questions and Answers
multiple choice questions in electrical engineering
(a) Torque developed by the motor will be almost zero and the motor will stop without causing any damage to the motor
(b) The motor will draw very high armature current but it will continue to drive the load at a reduced speed.
(c) The motor would tend to race to a high speed while driving the load
(d) The motor would draw very high armature current and will stall with consequent damage to the armature
Ans:-B
2. A single-phase alternator has a synchronous reactance of 2 ohms and negligible resistance. If it supplies 10 A to a purely capacitive load at 200 V, then the generated emf will be.
(a) 240 volts
(b) 220 volts
(c) 200 volts
(d) 180 volts
Ans:-D
3. Suppose a synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus it supplying electrical power at unity PF to the bus. If its field current is now increased
(a) Both the active and reactive power output of the generator will remain unchanged
(b) The active power supplied will remain unchanged but the machine will also supply lagging reactive power
(c) The active power supplied will increase and the machine will draw leading reactive power
(d) The active power supplied will decrease and the machine will supply leading reactive power
Ans:-B
4. In the phasor-diagram of a round-rotor synchronous generator, the volt age equations is E f = V t + I e ( r a + j X a ), where E f = excitation voltage, V t = terminal voltage, Ie = armature current at lagging power factor, r a = armature resistance; Xs= synchronous reactance. While remaining synchronized to the bus-bars (infinite bus), f the power input from the prime mover is gradually decreased and finally stopped, it will result in
(a) Reversal of ‘I a’ and E lagging V t
(b) Reversal of I a but E f leading V t
(c) The sign of I a remaining unchanged, but E f leading V t
(d) The sign of I a remaining unchanged, but E f lagging V t
Ans:-C
5. A 3-phase Induction motor has a full-load slip of 3 per cent at normal voltage. Which one of the following will be the value of the slip of the motor if ft develops the same torque theoretically while operating at 110 per cent of its normal voltage?
(a) 2.48%
(b) 0.248%
(c) 0.483%
(d) 4.83%
Ans:-A
6. A 6-pole, 3-phase, 60 Hz Induction motor runs at 1000 rpm developing maximum torque. Rotor resistance per phase is 1.2 ohms. Neglecting stator impedance, then for developing maximum torque, the external resistance to be connected in series with each rotor phase will be
(a) 7.2 ohms
(b) 6 ohms
(c) 1.44 ohms
(d) 1.2 ohms
Ans:-A
7. The capacitor-start single-phase Induction motors develop much larger starting torque in comparison with the “split-phase” motors, because the use of capacitors in the auxiliary winding enables
(a) Provision of larger number of turns in the auxiliary winding
(b) A larger starting current to be drawn from the supply
(c) The torque-slip characteristic in general to get a shape to give a large starting torque
(d) The current division between the main and auxiliary windings to be conducive for the development of large starting torque
Ans:-D
8. If the load of a synchronous motor is increases while keeping the field excitation constant, then
(a) Power factor will increase and power angle will decrease
(b) Power factor will decrease and power angle will increase
(c) Both power factor and power angle will increase
(d) Both power factor and power angle will decrease
Ans:-C
9. A synchronous motor operates as a synchronous condenser when it is
(a) Operated at unity power factor
(b) under-excited
(c) Over-excited
(d) Connected in parallel with condensers
Ans:-C
10. An equipment has 0.8 per unit impedance on a base of 66KV, 100 MVA. It’s per unit impedances on a base of 33 KV, 100 MVA will be
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.6
(d) 3.2
Ans:-A
11. In a 3-phase power transformer, 5-limbed construction is adopted to
(a) Suppress the 5th and 7th harmonics
(b) Suppress the 3rd and its multiple harmonics
(c) Suppress all the orders of harmonics
(d) Increase the capacity of the transformer
Ans:-A
12. A transformer has a resistance of 2% and reactance of 4%. Its regulations at 0.8 power factor lagging a leading respectively are
(a) 4 per cent and — 0.8 per cent
(b) —4 per cent and 0.8 per cent
(c) — 0.8 per cent and 4 per cent
(d) 0.8 per cent and —4 per cent
Ans:-A
13. Consider the following statements:
The use of Delta-connected tertiary windings in star-star connected power transformers
1. Makes available supply for single-phase loads.
2. Suppresses harmonic voltages.
3. Allows flow of earth fault current for operation of protective devices
4. Provides low-reactance paths for zeros sequence currents.
Of the statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
14. If dv / dt occurring across a thyristor exceeds its permissible value, then the thyristor will
(a) Remain in the forward blocking state without any damage
(b) Turn on only to get damaged
(c) Turn on but whether it gets damaged or not will depend on the final follow up current
(d) Not turn on but get damaged
Ans:-C
15. In a dc machine, the armature mmf is
(a) Rectangular and directed along the inter- polar axis
(b) Triangular and directed along the inter-polar axis
(c) Triangular and directed along the brush axis
(d) Rectangular and directed along the brush axis
Ans:-C
16. The average load current of a dc chopper feeding a pure resistive load is I amps. If a variable inductance connected in the load circuit Is progressively increased from zero value, keeping the duty ratio unchanged, then the average load current will
(a) Increase starting from 1
(b) Decrease with a starting value of 1
(c) Remain the same at 1
(d) Increase to some highest value of current and then decrease again to 1
Ans:-D
17. Consider the following statements:
The source inductance of an ac to dc line commutated phase controlled converter
1. limits dv / dt capability of thyristors.
2. Causes a voltage drop in the de terminal voltage.
3. Improves the line side power factor.
4. limits the range of firing angles.
5. reduces the line side power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 5 are correct
(d) 2, 4 and 5 are correct
Ans:-B
18. When starting a differentially connected compound motor, it Is desirable to short-circuit the series field winding to
(a) Avoid very high starting time
(b) Avoid excessive starting speed
(c) Prevent the motor from starting in the reverse direction
(d) Avoid heavy in-rush of current
Ans:-B
19. A single-phase voltage controller is employed for controlling the power flow from 206 V, 50 Hz source into a load consisting of R = 5 Ω and ω L = 12 Ω The value of maximum mis load current and the firing angle are respectively
(a) 260 / 10.9 A and 00
(b) 20 A and 0°
(c) 20 A and 90°
(d) 260 / 10.9 A and 90°
Ans:-C
20. The number of thyristors required for single- phase to single-phase cycloconverter of the midpoint and for three-phase to three-phase 3-pulse type of cycloconverter are respectively
(a) 4and6
(b) 4and4
(c) 4andl8
(d) None of the above
Ans:-C
Thursday, July 28, 2011
Objective Electrical Engineering For SAIL MTT Jobs
Objective Electrical Engineering For SAIL MTT Jobs
Solved electrical engineering Exam Questions FOR SAIL
Practice paper for SAIL Management Trainee vacancy
1. When bundle conductors are used in place of single conductors, the effective inductance and capacitance will respectively
(a) Increase and decrease
(b) Decrease and increase
(c) Decrease and remain unaffected
(d) remain unaffected and increase
Ans:-B
2. A balanced 3-phase, 3-wire supply feeds balanced star connected resistors. If one of the resistors is disconnected, then the percentage reduction in load will be
(a) 33(1/3)
(b) 50
(c) 66(2/3)
(d) 75
Ans:-A
3. A long overhead transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance. Under this operating condition, the ratio of the voltage to the current at dfferen1pñnts along the line will
(a) Progressively increase from the sending-end to the receiving-end
(b) Progressively increase from the receiving- end to the sending-end
(c) remain the same at the two ends, but be higher between the two ends being maximum at the centre of the line
(d) Remain the same at all points
Ans:-D
4. For a transmission line with negligible losses, the lagging reactive power (VAR) delivered at the receiving-end, for a given receiving-end voltage, is directly proportional to the
(a) Square of the line voltage drop
(b) Line voltage drop
(c) Line inductive reactance
(d) Line capacitive reactance
Ans:-B
5. Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission line is provided to protect the line against
(a) Lightning surges
(b) Switching surges
(c) Excessive fault voltages
(d) Corona effect
Ans:-A
6. Consider the following statements about distance relays
1. The effect of an arc may cause the relay to under reach.
2. The effect of an intermediate current source may cause the relay to overreach.
3. The effect of an intermediate load may cause the relay to under reach.
4. The presence of dc offset in the fault current may cause the relay to over- reach.
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 1. 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-C
Directions: The following 13 items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide f the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these Items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
7. Assertion (A): Whenever a synchro pair is used as an error detector, a two-phase ac motor may be used as an actuator.
Reason (R) : the synchro pair produces an error voltage which is suppressed carrier modulated and a two-phase ac motor could demodulate this.
Ans:-C
8. Assertion (A): The input impedance of a loss- less transmission line can have two limiting values, zero and infinity.
Reason (R) : These limiting values will depend upon whether the transmission line is open or shorted at the load end and whether the length of the line is an integral multiple of λ/4 where λ is the wavelength within the transmission line.
Ans:-A
9. Assertion (A) : In order to produce a light spot at the point at which the electron am strikes the CR0 screen, the inner surface of the screen is coated with a phosphor.
Reason (R) : The phosphor absorbs the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons and reemits energy at a higher frequency
Ans:-B
10. Assertion (A) : Frequency modulation systems are more widely used than amplitude modulation systems.
Reason (R): Frequency modulation systems have less noise than amplitude modulation systems.
Ans:-C
11. Assertion (A): Low resistances are not measured by Wheatstone bridge arrangements.
Reason (R) : The effects of contact and lead resistances detrimental to low resistance measurements, are present in large amounts in Wheatstone bridge method.
Ans:-A
12. Assertion (A): Multistage dc amplifiers are invariably based on two-transistor differential amplifiers.
Reason (R): Two-transistor differential amplifiers have high gain and high CMRR.
Ans:-A
13. Assertion (A): DC shunt motors are usually fitted with interpoles.
Reason (R) : Interpoles increases the starting torque of dc shunt motors.
Ans:-C
14. Assertion (A): In a level compounded dc generator, the terminal voltage at full load is equal to the terminal voltage at no-load.
Reason (R): Under load conditions, the armature reaction increases the flux per pole and thus helps maintain a constant terminal voltage.
Ans:-A
15. Assertion (A): DC series motors are known to be capable of operating on ac supply as well. With a very minor modification, dc shunt motors can work on ac supply as well.
Reason (R): the direction of torque developed in a rotating machine remains unaltered if the directions of conductor current and air-gap flux are reversed simultaneously.
Ans:-C
16. Assertion (A): In the experimental determination of synchronous impedance of an ac generator, it is possible to take one set of data only from short- circuit test, and obtain there from the short circuit characteristic of the machine as a straight line passing through the origin of the plot.
Reason (R): During the short-circuit test, the magnetic circuit of an alternator; remains unsaturated even when the field excitation is high.
Ans:-B
17. Assertion (A): Under normal operating conditions, major portion of iron losses of an induction motor occurs in the stator.
Reason (R): The frequency of the rotor currents under normal operating conditions is very small.
Ans:-A
18. Assertion (A) Solid state regulators are finding favour in speed control of domestic fans, over conventional resistance and inductance type regulators.
Reason (R): Solid state regulators are compact, relatively less expensive, energy efficient, more reliable and afford noise-free operation.
Ans:-A
19. Assertion (A): The conductors are usually transposed in transmission lines.
Reason (R): The resistance of each phase has to be equal.
Ans:-C
20. For the network function
Z(s) = 2 (s2 + 1)(s2 + 9) / s(s2+4)
the value of the series capacitance in Foster Form I is
(a) 1/9 F
(b) 3/9 F
(c) 2/9 F
(d) 4/9 F
Ans:-C
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I
(Time functions)
A. e-2(t-2)
B. d (t2) / dt
C. t /2
List II
(Laplace transforms)
1. 2 / s2
2. 1 / s+2 e-2s
3. 1 / 2s2
4. 1 / 2s
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 3 1 4
Ans:-A
22. When a constant voltage source V is connected to a series R-L circuit with zero initial stored energy in the inductor, the instantaneous value of power supplied to the inductor I is given by
(a) V2/R (e –Rl/L — e-2Rt/L)
(b) V2/R (1 — e-Rt/L)
(c) V2/R e-Rt/L
(d) V2/R(1 + e-Rt/L)
Ans:-B
23. Consider the following statements
In a series RLC resonant circuit, the bandwidth is
1. Directly proportional to resonant frequency
2. Inversely proportional to resonant frequency
3. Directly proportional to quality factor
4. Inversely proportional to quality factor
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
24. The instantaneous power taken by a balanced three-phase load supplied from a balanced three- phase source it
(a) Zero
(b) A constant
(c) A pulsating function with a non-zero average
(d) Alternating with a zero average
Ans:-B
25. The power in a 3-phase 3-wire load Is measured using two 100 W full-scale wattmeters W1 and W7 WI is of accuracy class ±1% and reads 100 W. W2 is of accuracy class ±0.5% and reads —50 W. Then the uncertainty In the computation of total power it
(a) ± 1.5%
(b) ± 0.5%
(c) ±4%
(d) ±3%
Ans:-D
Solved electrical engineering Exam Questions FOR SAIL
Practice paper for SAIL Management Trainee vacancy
1. When bundle conductors are used in place of single conductors, the effective inductance and capacitance will respectively
(a) Increase and decrease
(b) Decrease and increase
(c) Decrease and remain unaffected
(d) remain unaffected and increase
Ans:-B
2. A balanced 3-phase, 3-wire supply feeds balanced star connected resistors. If one of the resistors is disconnected, then the percentage reduction in load will be
(a) 33(1/3)
(b) 50
(c) 66(2/3)
(d) 75
Ans:-A
3. A long overhead transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance. Under this operating condition, the ratio of the voltage to the current at dfferen1pñnts along the line will
(a) Progressively increase from the sending-end to the receiving-end
(b) Progressively increase from the receiving- end to the sending-end
(c) remain the same at the two ends, but be higher between the two ends being maximum at the centre of the line
(d) Remain the same at all points
Ans:-D
4. For a transmission line with negligible losses, the lagging reactive power (VAR) delivered at the receiving-end, for a given receiving-end voltage, is directly proportional to the
(a) Square of the line voltage drop
(b) Line voltage drop
(c) Line inductive reactance
(d) Line capacitive reactance
Ans:-B
5. Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission line is provided to protect the line against
(a) Lightning surges
(b) Switching surges
(c) Excessive fault voltages
(d) Corona effect
Ans:-A
6. Consider the following statements about distance relays
1. The effect of an arc may cause the relay to under reach.
2. The effect of an intermediate current source may cause the relay to overreach.
3. The effect of an intermediate load may cause the relay to under reach.
4. The presence of dc offset in the fault current may cause the relay to over- reach.
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 1. 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-C
Directions: The following 13 items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide f the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these Items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
7. Assertion (A): Whenever a synchro pair is used as an error detector, a two-phase ac motor may be used as an actuator.
Reason (R) : the synchro pair produces an error voltage which is suppressed carrier modulated and a two-phase ac motor could demodulate this.
Ans:-C
8. Assertion (A): The input impedance of a loss- less transmission line can have two limiting values, zero and infinity.
Reason (R) : These limiting values will depend upon whether the transmission line is open or shorted at the load end and whether the length of the line is an integral multiple of λ/4 where λ is the wavelength within the transmission line.
Ans:-A
9. Assertion (A) : In order to produce a light spot at the point at which the electron am strikes the CR0 screen, the inner surface of the screen is coated with a phosphor.
Reason (R) : The phosphor absorbs the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons and reemits energy at a higher frequency
Ans:-B
10. Assertion (A) : Frequency modulation systems are more widely used than amplitude modulation systems.
Reason (R): Frequency modulation systems have less noise than amplitude modulation systems.
Ans:-C
11. Assertion (A): Low resistances are not measured by Wheatstone bridge arrangements.
Reason (R) : The effects of contact and lead resistances detrimental to low resistance measurements, are present in large amounts in Wheatstone bridge method.
Ans:-A
12. Assertion (A): Multistage dc amplifiers are invariably based on two-transistor differential amplifiers.
Reason (R): Two-transistor differential amplifiers have high gain and high CMRR.
Ans:-A
13. Assertion (A): DC shunt motors are usually fitted with interpoles.
Reason (R) : Interpoles increases the starting torque of dc shunt motors.
Ans:-C
14. Assertion (A): In a level compounded dc generator, the terminal voltage at full load is equal to the terminal voltage at no-load.
Reason (R): Under load conditions, the armature reaction increases the flux per pole and thus helps maintain a constant terminal voltage.
Ans:-A
15. Assertion (A): DC series motors are known to be capable of operating on ac supply as well. With a very minor modification, dc shunt motors can work on ac supply as well.
Reason (R): the direction of torque developed in a rotating machine remains unaltered if the directions of conductor current and air-gap flux are reversed simultaneously.
Ans:-C
16. Assertion (A): In the experimental determination of synchronous impedance of an ac generator, it is possible to take one set of data only from short- circuit test, and obtain there from the short circuit characteristic of the machine as a straight line passing through the origin of the plot.
Reason (R): During the short-circuit test, the magnetic circuit of an alternator; remains unsaturated even when the field excitation is high.
Ans:-B
17. Assertion (A): Under normal operating conditions, major portion of iron losses of an induction motor occurs in the stator.
Reason (R): The frequency of the rotor currents under normal operating conditions is very small.
Ans:-A
18. Assertion (A) Solid state regulators are finding favour in speed control of domestic fans, over conventional resistance and inductance type regulators.
Reason (R): Solid state regulators are compact, relatively less expensive, energy efficient, more reliable and afford noise-free operation.
Ans:-A
19. Assertion (A): The conductors are usually transposed in transmission lines.
Reason (R): The resistance of each phase has to be equal.
Ans:-C
20. For the network function
Z(s) = 2 (s2 + 1)(s2 + 9) / s(s2+4)
the value of the series capacitance in Foster Form I is
(a) 1/9 F
(b) 3/9 F
(c) 2/9 F
(d) 4/9 F
Ans:-C
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I
(Time functions)
A. e-2(t-2)
B. d (t2) / dt
C. t /2
List II
(Laplace transforms)
1. 2 / s2
2. 1 / s+2 e-2s
3. 1 / 2s2
4. 1 / 2s
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 3 1 4
Ans:-A
22. When a constant voltage source V is connected to a series R-L circuit with zero initial stored energy in the inductor, the instantaneous value of power supplied to the inductor I is given by
(a) V2/R (e –Rl/L — e-2Rt/L)
(b) V2/R (1 — e-Rt/L)
(c) V2/R e-Rt/L
(d) V2/R(1 + e-Rt/L)
Ans:-B
23. Consider the following statements
In a series RLC resonant circuit, the bandwidth is
1. Directly proportional to resonant frequency
2. Inversely proportional to resonant frequency
3. Directly proportional to quality factor
4. Inversely proportional to quality factor
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
24. The instantaneous power taken by a balanced three-phase load supplied from a balanced three- phase source it
(a) Zero
(b) A constant
(c) A pulsating function with a non-zero average
(d) Alternating with a zero average
Ans:-B
25. The power in a 3-phase 3-wire load Is measured using two 100 W full-scale wattmeters W1 and W7 WI is of accuracy class ±1% and reads 100 W. W2 is of accuracy class ±0.5% and reads —50 W. Then the uncertainty In the computation of total power it
(a) ± 1.5%
(b) ± 0.5%
(c) ±4%
(d) ±3%
Ans:-D
Sunday, June 26, 2011
Online PDF Mechanical Engineering paper 2010
Online PDF Mechanical Engineering paper 2010
Free Download previous Question paper
INDIAN ENGINEERING SERVICE MECHANICAL PREVIOUS PAPER
IES 2010 QUESTION PAPERS
PDF MECHANICAL PAPER
Free Download previous Question paper
INDIAN ENGINEERING SERVICE MECHANICAL PREVIOUS PAPER
IES 2010 QUESTION PAPERS
PDF MECHANICAL PAPER
Friday, May 27, 2011
Transducrs MCQ Questions
Transducrs MCQ Questions
1. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)
2. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)
3. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)
4. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)
5. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)
6. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ∆ρ
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)
7. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)
8. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
9. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)
10. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)
11. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)
12. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)
13. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)
14. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)
15. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)
16. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
17. ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
18. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)
19. Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
20. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)
21. Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
22. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
23. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
24. Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
25. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
26. One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
27. The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
28. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)
29. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)
30. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)
31. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)
1. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)
2. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)
3. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)
4. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)
5. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)
6. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ∆ρ
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)
7. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)
8. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
9. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)
10. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)
11. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)
12. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)
13. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)
14. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)
15. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)
16. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
17. ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
18. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)
19. Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
20. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)
21. Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
22. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
23. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
24. Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
25. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
26. One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
27. The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
28. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)
29. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)
30. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)
31. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)
TRANSDUCERS Quiz Electronics Instrument Engineering
TRANSDUCERS Quiz Electronics Instrument Engineering
1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)
2. The transducers that converts the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)
3. A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer
Ans : (d)
4. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT
Ans : (b)
5. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers
Ans : (c)
6. An inverse transducer is a device which converts
a) An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity
b) Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity
c) Electrical energy into thermal energy
d) Electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (a)
7. A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement
Ans : (a)
8. Resolution of a transducer depends on
a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage
Ans : (c)
9. The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of
a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10
Ans : (b)
12. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
a) Change in diameter of the wire
b) Change in length of the wire
c) Change in both length and diameter
d) Change in resistivity
Ans : (c)
13. Bonded wire strain gauges are
a) Exclusively used for construction of transducers
b) Exclusively used for stress analysis
c) Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer
d) Pressure measurement
Ans : (c)
14. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)
15. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ___________ of piezo-electric materials
a) Natural group
b) Synthetic group
c) Natural or Synthetic group
d) Fiber group
Ans : (a)
16. Which of the following are piezo electric substances?
1. Barium titanate
2. Lead titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium and sulphate
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,3and4
c) 1,2and 3
d) 2,3and 4
Ans : (c)
17. Piezo-electric transducers are
a) Passive transducers
b) Inverse transducers
c) Digital transducers
d) Pulse transducers
Ans : (b)
18. Piezo - electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
a) Mechanical force
b) Vibrations
c) Illuminations
d) Heat
Ans : (d)
19. Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
a) When external mechanical force is applied to i
b) When radiant energy stimulates the crystal
c) When external magnetic field is applied
d) When the junction of two such crystals are heated Ans : (a)
20. The draw backs of strain gauges are
S1: Low fatigue life
S2: They are expensive, brittle and sensitive to temperature
S3: Poor linearity
a) S1 and S2
b) S2 and S3
c) S1 and S3
d) S1 only
Ans : (b)
21. LVDT windings are wound on
a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper
Ans : (c)
22. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)
23. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)
24. LVDT is an/a ___________ transducer
a) Magneto-strict ion
b) Inductive
c) Resistive
d) Eddy current
Ans : (d)
25. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
26. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)
27. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Ans : (b)
28. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic
Ans : (b)
29. Match the following
1. EEG A. Diagnostic tool for heart alignment
2. ECG B. Diagnostic tool for brain alignment
3. Sphygmo-manometer C. Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
4. Stethoscope D. instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (a)
30. Pick the correct statement regarding functions of a transducer
S1: Sense the magnitude, change in & / or frequency of same measurand
S2: To provide electrical output that furnishes accurate, quantitative data about the measurand
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)
2. The transducers that converts the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)
3. A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer
Ans : (d)
4. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT
Ans : (b)
5. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers
Ans : (c)
6. An inverse transducer is a device which converts
a) An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity
b) Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity
c) Electrical energy into thermal energy
d) Electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (a)
7. A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement
Ans : (a)
8. Resolution of a transducer depends on
a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage
Ans : (c)
9. The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of
a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10
Ans : (b)
12. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
a) Change in diameter of the wire
b) Change in length of the wire
c) Change in both length and diameter
d) Change in resistivity
Ans : (c)
13. Bonded wire strain gauges are
a) Exclusively used for construction of transducers
b) Exclusively used for stress analysis
c) Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer
d) Pressure measurement
Ans : (c)
14. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)
15. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ___________ of piezo-electric materials
a) Natural group
b) Synthetic group
c) Natural or Synthetic group
d) Fiber group
Ans : (a)
16. Which of the following are piezo electric substances?
1. Barium titanate
2. Lead titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium and sulphate
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,3and4
c) 1,2and 3
d) 2,3and 4
Ans : (c)
17. Piezo-electric transducers are
a) Passive transducers
b) Inverse transducers
c) Digital transducers
d) Pulse transducers
Ans : (b)
18. Piezo - electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
a) Mechanical force
b) Vibrations
c) Illuminations
d) Heat
Ans : (d)
19. Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
a) When external mechanical force is applied to i
b) When radiant energy stimulates the crystal
c) When external magnetic field is applied
d) When the junction of two such crystals are heated Ans : (a)
20. The draw backs of strain gauges are
S1: Low fatigue life
S2: They are expensive, brittle and sensitive to temperature
S3: Poor linearity
a) S1 and S2
b) S2 and S3
c) S1 and S3
d) S1 only
Ans : (b)
21. LVDT windings are wound on
a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper
Ans : (c)
22. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)
23. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)
24. LVDT is an/a ___________ transducer
a) Magneto-strict ion
b) Inductive
c) Resistive
d) Eddy current
Ans : (d)
25. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
26. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)
27. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Ans : (b)
28. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic
Ans : (b)
29. Match the following
1. EEG A. Diagnostic tool for heart alignment
2. ECG B. Diagnostic tool for brain alignment
3. Sphygmo-manometer C. Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
4. Stethoscope D. instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (a)
30. Pick the correct statement regarding functions of a transducer
S1: Sense the magnitude, change in & / or frequency of same measurand
S2: To provide electrical output that furnishes accurate, quantitative data about the measurand
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
Civil Engineering Previous Questions From IES
Civil Engineering Previous Questions From IES
Civil Engineering model question papers for ies
IES / Previous Questions With Answers Civil Engineering
1. What is the ratio of the elastic modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the transverse direction?
(a) 1/2 to 1
(b) 1/10 to 1/20
(c) 1 to 2
(d) l0 to 20
Ans. (c)
2. A circular rod of diameter 30 mm and length 200 mm is subjected to a tensile force. The extension in rod is 0.09 mm and
change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. What is the Poisson’s ratio of the material of the rod?
(a) 0.30
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.35
Ans. (c)
3. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 GPa and Poisson’s ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
(a) 74.0 GPa
(b) 80.0 GPa
(c) 100.0 GPa
(d) 128.5 GPa
Ans. (b)
4. What would be the shape of the failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen subjected to torque?
(a) Cup and cone shape at the centre
(b) Plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(c) Pyramid type wedge-shaped surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(d) Helicoidal surface at 45° to the axis of the specimen
Ans. (d)
5. Given E as the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity?
(a) E/2
(b) E/3
(c) E/4
(d) E/5
Ans. (b)
6. An equipment costs Rs. 25 Lakhs with an estimated salvage value of Rs. 5 Lakhs after 5 years of useful life. What is the
approximate equated annual cost for use of the equipment?
(a) Rs. 4 Lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 13 Lakhs
(d) Rs.17 Lakhs
Ans. (a)
7. Consider the following parameters:
1. The stability of the footing
2. The strength of the boom
3. The counter weight
4. Size of aggregates
Which of the above parameters governs the load capacity of a crane?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
8. A preliminary survey indicated that 20% of the time of a gang of workers is spent idly. What is the total number of observations
required to determine the proportion of idle time with 95 % confidence limit? Critical value at this level of confidence is 1. 96
(a) 236 observations
(b) 246 observations
(c) 256 observations
(d) 266 observations
Ans. (b)
9. Consider the following equipments
1. Drag line
2. Power shovel
3. Hoe
4. Crawler dozer
Which of the above may be used for excavation of materials and loading them into trucks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
10. Consider the following statements
The shear resistance of structural concrete members may be improved by:
1. Axial prestressing
2. Vertical prestressing
3. Inclined prestressing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
11. What shall be the maximum area of reinforcement
(i) In compression and
(ii) In tension to be provided in an RC beam, respectively, as per 1S456?
(a) 0.08% and 2%
(b) 2% and’4%
(c) 4% and 2%
(d) 4% and 4%
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following statements for minimum reinforcement to be provided .in a wall as a ratio of vertical reinforcement
to gross concrete area.
1. 0.0012 for deformed bars
2. 0.0015 for all other types of bars
3. 0.0012 for welded wire fabric with wires not larger than 16 mm in diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
13. What is the duration by which the completion time of any activity can be delayed without affecting the start of any of
the suceeding activities?
(a) Interfering float
(b) Free float
(c) Independent float
(d) Total float.
Ans. (b)
14. A, power shovel is fitted with an engine of 150 f.w.h.p. It operates on full load for 6 minutes followed by 8 minutes for idling at
one-third power. Its hourly utilization is for 3 cycles. What is its utilization factor?
(a) 0.398
(b) 0.433
(c) 0.467
(d) 0.528
Ans. (b)
15. A construction equipment has a useful life of 4 years after which it is to be replaced by a new, one. If the interest rate is 6%, what
is the nearest value of the sinking fund factor?
(a) 0.023
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.17
(d) 0.31
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no large difference in speed between wheeled tractors and crawlers.
2. The operating cost of crawlers is generally more than for wheeled tractors.
3. Both, viz ., wheeled •tractors as well as crawlers, need to be mounted on trailers for long distance hauls.
4. Wheeled tractors may occasionally suffer slips whereas crawlers do not
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following is associated with a critical activity in a A-O-A network?
(a) Maximum float
(b) Minimum float
(c) Zero float
(d) Free float
Ans. (c)
18. A uniform series of income is available in perpetuity, which will yield an amount of Rs. 4,000/- at the end of each 4-year period.
Sinking fund (deposit) factor, @ 8% p.a., for discrete compounding, is 0.222. For the same interest rate, What will the capitalized
equivalent income ‘now’?
(a) Rs. 11,100
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 14,285
(d) Rs. 16,000
Ans. (b)
19. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a single
bay portal frame fixed at base?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
20. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
d) 33%
Ans. (a)
Civil Engineering model question papers for ies
IES / Previous Questions With Answers Civil Engineering
1. What is the ratio of the elastic modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the transverse direction?
(a) 1/2 to 1
(b) 1/10 to 1/20
(c) 1 to 2
(d) l0 to 20
Ans. (c)
2. A circular rod of diameter 30 mm and length 200 mm is subjected to a tensile force. The extension in rod is 0.09 mm and
change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. What is the Poisson’s ratio of the material of the rod?
(a) 0.30
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.35
Ans. (c)
3. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 GPa and Poisson’s ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
(a) 74.0 GPa
(b) 80.0 GPa
(c) 100.0 GPa
(d) 128.5 GPa
Ans. (b)
4. What would be the shape of the failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen subjected to torque?
(a) Cup and cone shape at the centre
(b) Plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(c) Pyramid type wedge-shaped surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(d) Helicoidal surface at 45° to the axis of the specimen
Ans. (d)
5. Given E as the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity?
(a) E/2
(b) E/3
(c) E/4
(d) E/5
Ans. (b)
6. An equipment costs Rs. 25 Lakhs with an estimated salvage value of Rs. 5 Lakhs after 5 years of useful life. What is the
approximate equated annual cost for use of the equipment?
(a) Rs. 4 Lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 13 Lakhs
(d) Rs.17 Lakhs
Ans. (a)
7. Consider the following parameters:
1. The stability of the footing
2. The strength of the boom
3. The counter weight
4. Size of aggregates
Which of the above parameters governs the load capacity of a crane?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
8. A preliminary survey indicated that 20% of the time of a gang of workers is spent idly. What is the total number of observations
required to determine the proportion of idle time with 95 % confidence limit? Critical value at this level of confidence is 1. 96
(a) 236 observations
(b) 246 observations
(c) 256 observations
(d) 266 observations
Ans. (b)
9. Consider the following equipments
1. Drag line
2. Power shovel
3. Hoe
4. Crawler dozer
Which of the above may be used for excavation of materials and loading them into trucks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
10. Consider the following statements
The shear resistance of structural concrete members may be improved by:
1. Axial prestressing
2. Vertical prestressing
3. Inclined prestressing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
11. What shall be the maximum area of reinforcement
(i) In compression and
(ii) In tension to be provided in an RC beam, respectively, as per 1S456?
(a) 0.08% and 2%
(b) 2% and’4%
(c) 4% and 2%
(d) 4% and 4%
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following statements for minimum reinforcement to be provided .in a wall as a ratio of vertical reinforcement
to gross concrete area.
1. 0.0012 for deformed bars
2. 0.0015 for all other types of bars
3. 0.0012 for welded wire fabric with wires not larger than 16 mm in diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
13. What is the duration by which the completion time of any activity can be delayed without affecting the start of any of
the suceeding activities?
(a) Interfering float
(b) Free float
(c) Independent float
(d) Total float.
Ans. (b)
14. A, power shovel is fitted with an engine of 150 f.w.h.p. It operates on full load for 6 minutes followed by 8 minutes for idling at
one-third power. Its hourly utilization is for 3 cycles. What is its utilization factor?
(a) 0.398
(b) 0.433
(c) 0.467
(d) 0.528
Ans. (b)
15. A construction equipment has a useful life of 4 years after which it is to be replaced by a new, one. If the interest rate is 6%, what
is the nearest value of the sinking fund factor?
(a) 0.023
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.17
(d) 0.31
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no large difference in speed between wheeled tractors and crawlers.
2. The operating cost of crawlers is generally more than for wheeled tractors.
3. Both, viz ., wheeled •tractors as well as crawlers, need to be mounted on trailers for long distance hauls.
4. Wheeled tractors may occasionally suffer slips whereas crawlers do not
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following is associated with a critical activity in a A-O-A network?
(a) Maximum float
(b) Minimum float
(c) Zero float
(d) Free float
Ans. (c)
18. A uniform series of income is available in perpetuity, which will yield an amount of Rs. 4,000/- at the end of each 4-year period.
Sinking fund (deposit) factor, @ 8% p.a., for discrete compounding, is 0.222. For the same interest rate, What will the capitalized
equivalent income ‘now’?
(a) Rs. 11,100
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 14,285
(d) Rs. 16,000
Ans. (b)
19. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a single
bay portal frame fixed at base?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
20. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
d) 33%
Ans. (a)
civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES
civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES
UPSC Engineering Services Exam civil engineering Model Test Questions
UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering
1. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is
100 hectares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0
cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?
(a) (1.8 to 2) x 104 m3perday
(b) (2.5 to 2.75) x 104 m3per day
(c) (3.0 to3.25) x l04 m3perday
(d) (3.8 to 4.05) x 104 m3perday
Ans. (c)
2. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?
(a) Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period
(b) Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms
(c) Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically
(d) Effective perceptible water
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the following statements:
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which
1. A canal is carried over the drainage channel.
2. A drainage channel ‘is carried over the canal.
3. Both drainage channel and canal are at the same level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (a)
4. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.
2. By recording the drawdown in installed observation wells at different time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
5. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carring laminar flow of a liquid with ji 1.6 centipoise, the
velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the
axis?
(a) 0.01 N/m2
(b).0125N/m2
(c) 0.0175 N/m2
(d) 0.02 N/m2
Ans. (c)
6. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spill. way. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
(a) 27
(b) 10.5
(c) 15
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
7. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth by 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge?
(a) 12%
(b) 20%
(c) 36%
(d) 48%
Ans. (c)
8. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed 4s, then what is the peak water hammer, pressure in m of water?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 120
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A heterotroph is an organism that obtains
(a) Its cell carbon from an inorganic source
(b) Its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds
(c) Its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter
(d) Its energy from a natural ecosystem
Ans. (c)
10. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
(a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
(b) Magnification pertaining to microscopy
(c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
(d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
Ans. (d)
11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
(a) Uniform for the full width
(b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
(c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
(d) Of an irregular shape
Ans. (c)
12. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry
density?
(a) Silty clay—Clay—Sand—Grave sand clay mixture
(b) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture—Silty clay—Clay
(c) Clay—Silty clay—Sand— Gravel sand clay mixture
(d) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture— Clay—Silty clay
Ans. (c)
13. Consider the following statements:
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements liven above is correct?
(a). 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below,
the lists;
List-I (Speed) List-II (Application)
A. Space mean speed 1. Road conditions studies
B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation?
(a) Driving a drift through the tunne1
(b) ‘Blow in’ method
(c) ‘Blow out’ method
(d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’ methods
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails?
(a) Wave theory
(b) Percussion theory
(c) Drag theory
(d) Reversal theory
Ans. (d)
17. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 2° curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of 1 in 200?
(a) 1 in 250
(b) 1 in 238
(c) I in 209
(d) I in 198
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is not correct for container ports?
(a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Overall transit time is less
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo
(d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling area
Ans. (b)
19. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted soil
(b) Geomembrane
(c) Geotexile
(d) Geocomposite
Ans. (a)
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollution) List-II (Impact on Human Health)
A. Particulates 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
B. Carbon monoxide 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract
C. Sulphur oxides 3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, headache etc.
D. Photochemical oxidants 4. Causes respiratory illness
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
21. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
(a) Looping
(b) Inversion
(c) Coning
(d) Lofting
Ans. (d)
22. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?
(a) 80—100 dB
(b) 101—150 dB
(c) 51—70 dB
(d) 40—50 dB
Ans. (c)
23. A rectangular channel 3 wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is .l m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly)?
(a) 0.3 N/m2
(b) 0.15 N/m2
(c) 3.0 N/m2
(d) 1.5 N/m2
Ans. (d)
24. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale of 1: 100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3 /s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype of what magnitude?
(a) 102 m3 /s
(b) 103 m3 /s
(c) 104 m3 /s
(d) 105 m3 /s
Ans. (d)
25. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1: 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?
(a) 15.6kN
(b) 25.3kN
(c) 78kN
(d) 90kN
Ans. (c)
26. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radial distance, measured from the centre?
(a) 0.50R
(b) 0.71R
(c) 0.67 R
(d) 0.29 R
Ans. (b)
27. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s-1. The upstream depth is
2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.3
(c) 2.3
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
28. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge
(perimeter width)?
(a) 1.0 m2/s
(b) 1.4 m2/s
(c) 2.0 m2/s
(d) 2.8 m2/s
Ans. (d)
29. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a
discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the
Froude number of the flow?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6
Ans. (b)
30. Consider the following statements associated with groynes:
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of
particles that constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
31. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
(a) 5.5 m/s
(b) 11.2 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 9m/s
Ans. (a)
32. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate?
(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above MS.L.
Ans. (b)
The following questions consists of two statements , Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions choose any of the following four responses
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true and reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.
33. Assertion (A): A discrete particle (of diameter d0) settling in a circular sedimentation
tank follows a parabolic path.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0)
in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.
Ans. (a)
34. Assertion (A): Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting
Unconfined compression test.
Reason (R): The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for dry
and saturated sands, in drained condition.
Ans. (d)
35. Assertion (A): Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the structure is difficult.
Ans. (b)
36. Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil
in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 110° C.
Reason (R): The free water, absorbed water and structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 110° C.
Ans. (c)
37. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on
the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above
the sea level are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and
the lighthouse?
(a) 29.8 km
(b) 31.1 km
(c) 31.9 km
(d) 33.2 km
Ans. (b)
38. Match List-I with List-il and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists;
List-I (Instrument) List-II (Use)
A. Sub tense bar 1. To determine difference in elevation between points
B. Sextant 2. To determine horizontal distance
C. Tangent clinometers 3. To measure angles
D. Range finder 4. To establish right angles
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
39. Which one of the following instruments can be used as clinometers? -
(a) Prism square
(b) Line ranger
(c) Abney level
(d) Optical square
Ans. (c)
40. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans. (b)
UPSC Engineering Services Exam civil engineering Model Test Questions
UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering
1. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is
100 hectares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0
cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?
(a) (1.8 to 2) x 104 m3perday
(b) (2.5 to 2.75) x 104 m3per day
(c) (3.0 to3.25) x l04 m3perday
(d) (3.8 to 4.05) x 104 m3perday
Ans. (c)
2. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?
(a) Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period
(b) Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms
(c) Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically
(d) Effective perceptible water
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the following statements:
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which
1. A canal is carried over the drainage channel.
2. A drainage channel ‘is carried over the canal.
3. Both drainage channel and canal are at the same level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (a)
4. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.
2. By recording the drawdown in installed observation wells at different time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
5. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carring laminar flow of a liquid with ji 1.6 centipoise, the
velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the
axis?
(a) 0.01 N/m2
(b).0125N/m2
(c) 0.0175 N/m2
(d) 0.02 N/m2
Ans. (c)
6. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spill. way. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
(a) 27
(b) 10.5
(c) 15
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
7. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth by 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge?
(a) 12%
(b) 20%
(c) 36%
(d) 48%
Ans. (c)
8. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed 4s, then what is the peak water hammer, pressure in m of water?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 120
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A heterotroph is an organism that obtains
(a) Its cell carbon from an inorganic source
(b) Its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds
(c) Its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter
(d) Its energy from a natural ecosystem
Ans. (c)
10. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
(a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
(b) Magnification pertaining to microscopy
(c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
(d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
Ans. (d)
11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
(a) Uniform for the full width
(b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
(c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
(d) Of an irregular shape
Ans. (c)
12. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry
density?
(a) Silty clay—Clay—Sand—Grave sand clay mixture
(b) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture—Silty clay—Clay
(c) Clay—Silty clay—Sand— Gravel sand clay mixture
(d) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture— Clay—Silty clay
Ans. (c)
13. Consider the following statements:
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements liven above is correct?
(a). 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below,
the lists;
List-I (Speed) List-II (Application)
A. Space mean speed 1. Road conditions studies
B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation?
(a) Driving a drift through the tunne1
(b) ‘Blow in’ method
(c) ‘Blow out’ method
(d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’ methods
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails?
(a) Wave theory
(b) Percussion theory
(c) Drag theory
(d) Reversal theory
Ans. (d)
17. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 2° curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of 1 in 200?
(a) 1 in 250
(b) 1 in 238
(c) I in 209
(d) I in 198
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is not correct for container ports?
(a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Overall transit time is less
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo
(d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling area
Ans. (b)
19. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted soil
(b) Geomembrane
(c) Geotexile
(d) Geocomposite
Ans. (a)
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollution) List-II (Impact on Human Health)
A. Particulates 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
B. Carbon monoxide 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract
C. Sulphur oxides 3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, headache etc.
D. Photochemical oxidants 4. Causes respiratory illness
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
21. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
(a) Looping
(b) Inversion
(c) Coning
(d) Lofting
Ans. (d)
22. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?
(a) 80—100 dB
(b) 101—150 dB
(c) 51—70 dB
(d) 40—50 dB
Ans. (c)
23. A rectangular channel 3 wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is .l m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly)?
(a) 0.3 N/m2
(b) 0.15 N/m2
(c) 3.0 N/m2
(d) 1.5 N/m2
Ans. (d)
24. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale of 1: 100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3 /s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype of what magnitude?
(a) 102 m3 /s
(b) 103 m3 /s
(c) 104 m3 /s
(d) 105 m3 /s
Ans. (d)
25. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1: 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?
(a) 15.6kN
(b) 25.3kN
(c) 78kN
(d) 90kN
Ans. (c)
26. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radial distance, measured from the centre?
(a) 0.50R
(b) 0.71R
(c) 0.67 R
(d) 0.29 R
Ans. (b)
27. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s-1. The upstream depth is
2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.3
(c) 2.3
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
28. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge
(perimeter width)?
(a) 1.0 m2/s
(b) 1.4 m2/s
(c) 2.0 m2/s
(d) 2.8 m2/s
Ans. (d)
29. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a
discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the
Froude number of the flow?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6
Ans. (b)
30. Consider the following statements associated with groynes:
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of
particles that constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
31. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
(a) 5.5 m/s
(b) 11.2 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 9m/s
Ans. (a)
32. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate?
(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above MS.L.
Ans. (b)
The following questions consists of two statements , Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions choose any of the following four responses
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true and reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.
33. Assertion (A): A discrete particle (of diameter d0) settling in a circular sedimentation
tank follows a parabolic path.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0)
in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.
Ans. (a)
34. Assertion (A): Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting
Unconfined compression test.
Reason (R): The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for dry
and saturated sands, in drained condition.
Ans. (d)
35. Assertion (A): Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the structure is difficult.
Ans. (b)
36. Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil
in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 110° C.
Reason (R): The free water, absorbed water and structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 110° C.
Ans. (c)
37. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on
the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above
the sea level are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and
the lighthouse?
(a) 29.8 km
(b) 31.1 km
(c) 31.9 km
(d) 33.2 km
Ans. (b)
38. Match List-I with List-il and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists;
List-I (Instrument) List-II (Use)
A. Sub tense bar 1. To determine difference in elevation between points
B. Sextant 2. To determine horizontal distance
C. Tangent clinometers 3. To measure angles
D. Range finder 4. To establish right angles
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
39. Which one of the following instruments can be used as clinometers? -
(a) Prism square
(b) Line ranger
(c) Abney level
(d) Optical square
Ans. (c)
40. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans. (b)
Friday, April 29, 2011
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
Saturday, January 29, 2011
Electrical Impedance Resistance Conductance Sample Questions
Electrical Impedance Resistance Conductance Sample Questions
Current and resistance MCQ Quiz
1. A cycle of ac wave can be represented by
(a) ח radians
(b) 2 ח radians
(c) 90^
(d) None of these
Ans : b
2. The relationship between the frequency of ac wave and the periodic time is given by
(a) f = T
(b) f = 1/T
(c) f = 1/T2
(d) f = 1/T2
(e) Ans : b
3. DC power is given by
(a) VI cosф
(b) VI sinф
(c) VI
(d) IR
Ans : C
4 Capacitive reactance of the purely capacitive circuit is
(a) Xc= ωC
(b) Xc=1/ωC
(c) Xc=ω/C
(d) Xc=ω/C
Ans : b
5. A capacitive circuit of 50µF and of negligible resistance is connected across a 300 V.
50 Hz, single phase supply. The rms value of current drawn by the circuit is
(a) 4.72A
(b) 6A
(c) 16.68A
(d) 59.44A
Ans : a
6. The average power drawn by an inductive circuit given by
(a) P= ½ Emax Lmax
(b) P= Emax Lmax COS Ø
(c) P = ½ Emax Lmax COS Ø
(d) P = ½ E I COS Ø
Ans : c
7.The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 150 sin (2п30t ) the amplitude and frequency of the ac wave is respectively equal to,
(a) 150 √2; 30
(b) 150; 60
(c) 150; 30
(d) 150√2; 60
Ans : c
8. Kirchhoff’s second law can be algebraically represented as
(a) ΣLR +ΣE ΣLR
(b) LR+E=0
(c) ΣLR=0
(d) ΣL=0
Ans : a
9. If the maximum current of half wave rectified wave is IMAX, then its rms value is
Given by
(a) 1.5Imax
(b) Imax /ח
(c) 0.707Imax
(d) 1.637 Imax
Ans : a
10. A sinusoidal voltage wave shape represented by 250 sin (2 ח X 50 t) .Find the
maximum value
(a) 250/2
(b) 50
(c) 250
(d) 250/ ח
Ans : c
11. The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 100 sin (2п30t ).
RMS value of current is
(a) 77A
(b) 70.7A
(c) 707A
(d) 1A
Ans : b
12. The rms value of voltage for ac sine wave terms of its maximum value, Emax is
(a) EMax /ח
(b) 0.637Emax
(c) 0.707Emax
(d) 0.5Emax
Ans : c
13. A series ac circuit consisting of a resistor of 10 ohm and inductance of 0.2 Henry is connected across a single phase, 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10.2 ohm
(b) 63.65 ohm
(c) 32.98 ohm
(d) None
Ans : b
14. Power in a pure inductive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
15 Power in a pure capacitive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
16. If the maximum value of current of sine Imax, its average value is
given by,
(a)0.707 Imax
(b) 0.637 Imax
(c)Imax / ח
(d)0
Ans : a
17. Resistance of 8 ohm is connected with an inductance of L Henry. The current flowing in the circuit 15 A, when 230 V 50 Hz is applied across it. The value of inductance is
(a) 0.0208 H
(b) 0.123 H
(c) 0.0416 H
(d) 0.416 H
Ans : c
18. An alternating voltage, V= Vmax sinωt is applied to a purely capacitive circuit of C
Farads. The charging current in the circuit the circuit is given by
(a) I= cV
(b) I= C dV/dt
(c) I= C dI/dt
(d)I =Emax/ωc
Ans : b
19. Capacitive reactance of the above circuit is expressed as,
(a) Xc= ωc
(b) Xc = 1/ ωc
(c) Xc = ω/c
(d) Xc = c/ω
Ans : b
20. A resistor and inductor are connected in series across a voltage of V volts. The voltage across the resistor and inductor are 100V and 190 V respectively. The magnitude of applied voltage V will be,
(a) 214.71 V
(b) 190 V
(c) 100 V
(d) None of the above
Ans : a
21. A resistance of 5 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance of 795.4 µF. the
circuit is connected across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The power factor of this
circuit is,
(a) 0.78 lagging
(b) 0.67 lagging
(c) 0.78 lagging
(d) 0.82 lagging
Ans : c
22. The resistance of the coil A and B are 4 ohm and 1.75 ohm, respectively. Their
reactance’s are 3 ohm and 1.785 ohm respectively. These two coils are connected in
series across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The current in the circuit will be
(a) 52.68 A
(b) 30.75 A
(c) 65.88 A
(d) 45.92 A
Ans : b
23. The capacitive reactance of an ac circuit is 5 ohm. The capacitance of the circuit will
be,
(a) 318.31 µF
(b) 0.2 µF
(c) 1273. 24 µF
(d) 636.62 µF
Ans : d
24. In a series RC circuit, the voltage drop across the resistance and capacitive reactance
are respectively, 150 V and 120 V. the power factor of this circuit will be,
(a) 0.8 leading
(b) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.781 leading
(d) 0.781 lagging
Ans :c
25. An ac circuit consisting of an inductance of 50 mH is connected across a 230 V 60
Hz supply. The RMS value of current flowing through the circuit is
(a) 4.6 A
(b) 12.2 A
(c) 24.4 A
(d) None of these
Ans : b
26. The capacitive reactance of a circuit is 5 ohm, when the voltage applied and its frequency is 200 V and 50 Hz respectively. If the frequency of the applied voltage is reduced to 30Hz, the capacitive reactance of the circuit will be,
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 8. 33 ohm
(c) 8. Ohm
(d) 3 ohm
Ans : b
27. A purely capacitive circuit connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply draws 10 A. If the
capacitance of the circuit and the frequency of the applied voltage are both reduced to
half, the current drawn will be
(a) 10 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 40
(d) 2.5 A
Ans : d
28. A resistance of 15 ohm, an inductance of 0.05 H and capacitance of 90µF are
connected in series. The impedance of the circuit, when connected across supply of
230 V, 50Hz is
(a) 24. 73 ohm
(b) 19. 92 ohm
(c) 22. 73 ohm
(d) 29. 54 ohm
Ans : a
29. A current of 5 A leading its applied voltage by 90° is flowing in an ac circuit on the
application of single phase, 230 V 50 Hz supply. The parameters of the circuit are
(a) 69. 2 µF
(b) 46. ohm
(c) 69.2 mH
(d) None of these
Ans : a
30. Unit of magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) Am
(b) m/A
(c) A/m
(d) 1/Am
Ans : c
31. Which is the correct expression?
(a) B= φ.A
(b) φ= B.A
(c) B=A/ φ
(d) φ= B/A
Ans : b
32. Resistance of electrical circuit can be expressed as
(a) ) ρA/L
(b) ρL/A
(c) ρ/AL
(d) L/ρA
Ans : b
33. Reluctance of magnetic circuit can be expressed as
(a) )µL/A
(b) L/µA
(c) µA/L
(d) A/µL
Ans : b
34. Which concept is correct in magnetic circuit?
(a) ) flux flows in circuit
(b) Energy is needed till flux flow
(c) Reluctance independent of flux
(d) Flux flow due to MMF
Ans : d
35. Relation between total flux, useful flux and leakage flux is
(a) ) φT = φI- φ
(b ) φT = φ- φI
(c ) φT = φ+ φI
(d) φT = φI.φ
Ans : c
36. Leakage factor is expressed as
(a) φI= φ
(b ) φT= φI
(c ) φT= φ
(d) φ/φT
Ans : c
37. Imaginary lines around the magnet is called as
(a) Reluctance
(b) Flux
(c) Resistance
(d) Current
Ans : b
38. Expression for dynamically induced emf is given as
(a) BIv cos θ
(b) BIv sin θ
(c) BIv
(d) BIvθ
Ans : b
39. Change in linkage when conductor is stationary is called as _________ induced emf.
(a) Mutual
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : d
40. Induced emf by the movement of the conductor in magnetic filed is called induced emf.
(a) Mutually
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : c
Current and resistance MCQ Quiz
1. A cycle of ac wave can be represented by
(a) ח radians
(b) 2 ח radians
(c) 90^
(d) None of these
Ans : b
2. The relationship between the frequency of ac wave and the periodic time is given by
(a) f = T
(b) f = 1/T
(c) f = 1/T2
(d) f = 1/T2
(e) Ans : b
3. DC power is given by
(a) VI cosф
(b) VI sinф
(c) VI
(d) IR
Ans : C
4 Capacitive reactance of the purely capacitive circuit is
(a) Xc= ωC
(b) Xc=1/ωC
(c) Xc=ω/C
(d) Xc=ω/C
Ans : b
5. A capacitive circuit of 50µF and of negligible resistance is connected across a 300 V.
50 Hz, single phase supply. The rms value of current drawn by the circuit is
(a) 4.72A
(b) 6A
(c) 16.68A
(d) 59.44A
Ans : a
6. The average power drawn by an inductive circuit given by
(a) P= ½ Emax Lmax
(b) P= Emax Lmax COS Ø
(c) P = ½ Emax Lmax COS Ø
(d) P = ½ E I COS Ø
Ans : c
7.The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 150 sin (2п30t ) the amplitude and frequency of the ac wave is respectively equal to,
(a) 150 √2; 30
(b) 150; 60
(c) 150; 30
(d) 150√2; 60
Ans : c
8. Kirchhoff’s second law can be algebraically represented as
(a) ΣLR +ΣE ΣLR
(b) LR+E=0
(c) ΣLR=0
(d) ΣL=0
Ans : a
9. If the maximum current of half wave rectified wave is IMAX, then its rms value is
Given by
(a) 1.5Imax
(b) Imax /ח
(c) 0.707Imax
(d) 1.637 Imax
Ans : a
10. A sinusoidal voltage wave shape represented by 250 sin (2 ח X 50 t) .Find the
maximum value
(a) 250/2
(b) 50
(c) 250
(d) 250/ ח
Ans : c
11. The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 100 sin (2п30t ).
RMS value of current is
(a) 77A
(b) 70.7A
(c) 707A
(d) 1A
Ans : b
12. The rms value of voltage for ac sine wave terms of its maximum value, Emax is
(a) EMax /ח
(b) 0.637Emax
(c) 0.707Emax
(d) 0.5Emax
Ans : c
13. A series ac circuit consisting of a resistor of 10 ohm and inductance of 0.2 Henry is connected across a single phase, 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10.2 ohm
(b) 63.65 ohm
(c) 32.98 ohm
(d) None
Ans : b
14. Power in a pure inductive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
15 Power in a pure capacitive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
16. If the maximum value of current of sine Imax, its average value is
given by,
(a)0.707 Imax
(b) 0.637 Imax
(c)Imax / ח
(d)0
Ans : a
17. Resistance of 8 ohm is connected with an inductance of L Henry. The current flowing in the circuit 15 A, when 230 V 50 Hz is applied across it. The value of inductance is
(a) 0.0208 H
(b) 0.123 H
(c) 0.0416 H
(d) 0.416 H
Ans : c
18. An alternating voltage, V= Vmax sinωt is applied to a purely capacitive circuit of C
Farads. The charging current in the circuit the circuit is given by
(a) I= cV
(b) I= C dV/dt
(c) I= C dI/dt
(d)I =Emax/ωc
Ans : b
19. Capacitive reactance of the above circuit is expressed as,
(a) Xc= ωc
(b) Xc = 1/ ωc
(c) Xc = ω/c
(d) Xc = c/ω
Ans : b
20. A resistor and inductor are connected in series across a voltage of V volts. The voltage across the resistor and inductor are 100V and 190 V respectively. The magnitude of applied voltage V will be,
(a) 214.71 V
(b) 190 V
(c) 100 V
(d) None of the above
Ans : a
21. A resistance of 5 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance of 795.4 µF. the
circuit is connected across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The power factor of this
circuit is,
(a) 0.78 lagging
(b) 0.67 lagging
(c) 0.78 lagging
(d) 0.82 lagging
Ans : c
22. The resistance of the coil A and B are 4 ohm and 1.75 ohm, respectively. Their
reactance’s are 3 ohm and 1.785 ohm respectively. These two coils are connected in
series across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The current in the circuit will be
(a) 52.68 A
(b) 30.75 A
(c) 65.88 A
(d) 45.92 A
Ans : b
23. The capacitive reactance of an ac circuit is 5 ohm. The capacitance of the circuit will
be,
(a) 318.31 µF
(b) 0.2 µF
(c) 1273. 24 µF
(d) 636.62 µF
Ans : d
24. In a series RC circuit, the voltage drop across the resistance and capacitive reactance
are respectively, 150 V and 120 V. the power factor of this circuit will be,
(a) 0.8 leading
(b) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.781 leading
(d) 0.781 lagging
Ans :c
25. An ac circuit consisting of an inductance of 50 mH is connected across a 230 V 60
Hz supply. The RMS value of current flowing through the circuit is
(a) 4.6 A
(b) 12.2 A
(c) 24.4 A
(d) None of these
Ans : b
26. The capacitive reactance of a circuit is 5 ohm, when the voltage applied and its frequency is 200 V and 50 Hz respectively. If the frequency of the applied voltage is reduced to 30Hz, the capacitive reactance of the circuit will be,
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 8. 33 ohm
(c) 8. Ohm
(d) 3 ohm
Ans : b
27. A purely capacitive circuit connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply draws 10 A. If the
capacitance of the circuit and the frequency of the applied voltage are both reduced to
half, the current drawn will be
(a) 10 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 40
(d) 2.5 A
Ans : d
28. A resistance of 15 ohm, an inductance of 0.05 H and capacitance of 90µF are
connected in series. The impedance of the circuit, when connected across supply of
230 V, 50Hz is
(a) 24. 73 ohm
(b) 19. 92 ohm
(c) 22. 73 ohm
(d) 29. 54 ohm
Ans : a
29. A current of 5 A leading its applied voltage by 90° is flowing in an ac circuit on the
application of single phase, 230 V 50 Hz supply. The parameters of the circuit are
(a) 69. 2 µF
(b) 46. ohm
(c) 69.2 mH
(d) None of these
Ans : a
30. Unit of magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) Am
(b) m/A
(c) A/m
(d) 1/Am
Ans : c
31. Which is the correct expression?
(a) B= φ.A
(b) φ= B.A
(c) B=A/ φ
(d) φ= B/A
Ans : b
32. Resistance of electrical circuit can be expressed as
(a) ) ρA/L
(b) ρL/A
(c) ρ/AL
(d) L/ρA
Ans : b
33. Reluctance of magnetic circuit can be expressed as
(a) )µL/A
(b) L/µA
(c) µA/L
(d) A/µL
Ans : b
34. Which concept is correct in magnetic circuit?
(a) ) flux flows in circuit
(b) Energy is needed till flux flow
(c) Reluctance independent of flux
(d) Flux flow due to MMF
Ans : d
35. Relation between total flux, useful flux and leakage flux is
(a) ) φT = φI- φ
(b ) φT = φ- φI
(c ) φT = φ+ φI
(d) φT = φI.φ
Ans : c
36. Leakage factor is expressed as
(a) φI= φ
(b ) φT= φI
(c ) φT= φ
(d) φ/φT
Ans : c
37. Imaginary lines around the magnet is called as
(a) Reluctance
(b) Flux
(c) Resistance
(d) Current
Ans : b
38. Expression for dynamically induced emf is given as
(a) BIv cos θ
(b) BIv sin θ
(c) BIv
(d) BIvθ
Ans : b
39. Change in linkage when conductor is stationary is called as _________ induced emf.
(a) Mutual
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : d
40. Induced emf by the movement of the conductor in magnetic filed is called induced emf.
(a) Mutually
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : c
Friday, January 14, 2011
Solved electrical engineering for IES
Solved electrical engineering for IES
SAMPLE PAPER
1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
plane becomes ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field
Ans:c
2. Tesla is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment
Ans:b
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
Ans:b
4. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on?
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
Ans:c
5. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
Ans:a
6. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
Ans:a
7. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)4.0cm
(d) 1.0cm
Ans:c
8. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
Ans:d
9. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
Ans:b
10. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
Ans:a
11. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
12. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(a)0.2Tesla
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
Ans:a
13. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
Ans:d
14. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Ans:b
15. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
Ans:a
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) √(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) √(v/B)
(d)v/B
Ans:d
17. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
Ans:c
18. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans:c
19. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
Ans:c
20. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
Ans:c
21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
Ans:c
22. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
Ans:b
23. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
Ans:a
24. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
Ans:b
25. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be?
(a)2:1
(b)1:4
(c)4:1
(d)1:2
Ans:b
26. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
Ans:b
27. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
Ans:c
28. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
Ans:b
29. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
Ans:b
30. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
(a)3µ/2∏
(b)µ/∏
(c)√3µ/2∏
(d)µ/2∏
Ans:a
31. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(a)2cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Ans:b
32. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(a)qB/m∏
(b) qB/2m∏
(c)qBE/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
Ans:b
33. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
Ans:c
34. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(a)4B
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
Ans:a
35.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
Ans:b
36. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(a)2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans:a
37 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
Ans:b
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Ans:b
39. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c)Ni/√A
(d) N2Ai
Ans:a
40. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c
41. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b
42. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
Ans:b
SAMPLE PAPER
1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
plane becomes ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field
Ans:c
2. Tesla is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment
Ans:b
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
Ans:b
4. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on?
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
Ans:c
5. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
Ans:a
6. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
Ans:a
7. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)4.0cm
(d) 1.0cm
Ans:c
8. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
Ans:d
9. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
Ans:b
10. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
Ans:a
11. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
12. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(a)0.2Tesla
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
Ans:a
13. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
Ans:d
14. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Ans:b
15. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
Ans:a
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) √(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) √(v/B)
(d)v/B
Ans:d
17. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
Ans:c
18. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans:c
19. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
Ans:c
20. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
Ans:c
21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
Ans:c
22. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
Ans:b
23. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
Ans:a
24. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
Ans:b
25. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be?
(a)2:1
(b)1:4
(c)4:1
(d)1:2
Ans:b
26. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
Ans:b
27. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
Ans:c
28. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
Ans:b
29. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
Ans:b
30. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
(a)3µ/2∏
(b)µ/∏
(c)√3µ/2∏
(d)µ/2∏
Ans:a
31. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(a)2cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Ans:b
32. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(a)qB/m∏
(b) qB/2m∏
(c)qBE/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
Ans:b
33. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
Ans:c
34. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(a)4B
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
Ans:a
35.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
Ans:b
36. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(a)2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans:a
37 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
Ans:b
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Ans:b
39. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c)Ni/√A
(d) N2Ai
Ans:a
40. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c
41. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b
42. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
Ans:b
Thursday, January 13, 2011
electronics MCQ Objective solved questions for IES
electronics MCQ Objective solved questions for IES
Electronics engineering objective type questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Electronics engineering For SAIL GAIL ONGC IES
Engg Multiple Choice Questions: IES ELECTRONICS
1 Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
2 Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
3. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
4. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
5Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
6. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
7 One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
8 The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
9.The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
12. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
13 ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
14.. An operational amplifier is a
S1: Direct coupled high gain amplifier
S2: Device to perform linear operation
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
15. The input impedance of the operational amplifier is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Very high but not infinite
d) Very small
Ans : (c)
16. Power supply rejection ratio of an OPAMP should be
a) Ideally unity
b) Zero
c) As small as possible
d) As large as possible
Ans : (d)
17. The ideal value of CMRR is
a) 1
b) 0
c) -∞
d) ∞
Ans : (d)
18. To get very high input impedance ________________ is also used as an isolation amplifier.
a) Boost strapping circuit
b) Darlington pair
c) Push pull circuit
d) Emitter follower
Ans : (a)
19. Carrier amplifiers are characterized by
a) Low gain
b) Medium gain
c) High gain
d) Drift
Ans : (c)
20. DC amplifiers are generally
S1: Negative feedback type
S2: Positive feedback type
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
21. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against
a) Grounding
b) Leakage currents
c) Stray field
d) Shock
Ans : (b)
22 __________is the recording of the bio potentials generated by the movement of the eye ball.
a) Electro oculograph
b) Electro retinograph
c) Apexcardiograph
d) Ballistograph
Ans : (b)
23. The heart sounds are recorded by
a) Electrocardiography
b) Endoscope
c) Phono cardiograph
d) Angio cardiograph
Ans : (c)
24.. Type of laser used in photo chemical process is
a) CO2
b) Nd-YAG
c) He-Ne
d) Excimer lasers
Ans : (c)
25.. MRI makes use of the _____ region of the electromagnetic spectra to provide an image.
a) Ultra Violet
b) Radio Frequency
c) Infra Red
d) Ultra High frequency
Ans : (b)
26.. (A) Spin Density – (1) Signal is proportional to no. of nuclei present
(B) Spin lattice – (2) Longitudinal relaxation time
(C)Spin-spin – (3) Transverse relaxation time
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (a)
27.. (A) A mode – (1) Reflected echoes are depicted as dots
(B) B mode – (2) unidirectional graphic representation
(C)M /T-M mode – (3) Reflected echoes are depicted as vertical spikes
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (c)
28.. Ultra sound is a form of energy which consists of
S1: Mechanical vibrations of high frequency
S2: Elecrical vibrations of high frequency
a) S1 is true
b) S2 is true
c) S1 and S2 are true
d) S1 and S2 are false
Ans : (a)
29.. CT scanner is highly helpful in
a) Bone tumours
b) Thorax scanning
c) Neck scanning
d) Brain scanning
Ans : (d)
30. The first medical application of LASER was in
a) Gastrology
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Opthalmology
d) Cardiography
Ans : (c)
31. In D.C. defibrillator, a pulse width of 5 to 10 msec duration is generated by means of
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) IC 555
d) Capacitor discharge
Ans : (d)
32.. Micro shock may occur due to flow of
a) 1 ampere current across body surface
b) Few milli ampere current across the cardiac muscles
c) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface for 1 minute
d) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface
Ans : (b)
33. The use of super conducting magnets in MRI is to obtain
a) Signals from surface tissue
b) High R.F. field
c) High strength gradient fields
d) High strength magnetic fields
Ans ; (d)
Electronics engineering objective type questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Electronics engineering For SAIL GAIL ONGC IES
Engg Multiple Choice Questions: IES ELECTRONICS
1 Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
2 Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
3. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
4. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
5Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
6. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
7 One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
8 The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
9.The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
12. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
13 ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
14.. An operational amplifier is a
S1: Direct coupled high gain amplifier
S2: Device to perform linear operation
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
15. The input impedance of the operational amplifier is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Very high but not infinite
d) Very small
Ans : (c)
16. Power supply rejection ratio of an OPAMP should be
a) Ideally unity
b) Zero
c) As small as possible
d) As large as possible
Ans : (d)
17. The ideal value of CMRR is
a) 1
b) 0
c) -∞
d) ∞
Ans : (d)
18. To get very high input impedance ________________ is also used as an isolation amplifier.
a) Boost strapping circuit
b) Darlington pair
c) Push pull circuit
d) Emitter follower
Ans : (a)
19. Carrier amplifiers are characterized by
a) Low gain
b) Medium gain
c) High gain
d) Drift
Ans : (c)
20. DC amplifiers are generally
S1: Negative feedback type
S2: Positive feedback type
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
21. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against
a) Grounding
b) Leakage currents
c) Stray field
d) Shock
Ans : (b)
22 __________is the recording of the bio potentials generated by the movement of the eye ball.
a) Electro oculograph
b) Electro retinograph
c) Apexcardiograph
d) Ballistograph
Ans : (b)
23. The heart sounds are recorded by
a) Electrocardiography
b) Endoscope
c) Phono cardiograph
d) Angio cardiograph
Ans : (c)
24.. Type of laser used in photo chemical process is
a) CO2
b) Nd-YAG
c) He-Ne
d) Excimer lasers
Ans : (c)
25.. MRI makes use of the _____ region of the electromagnetic spectra to provide an image.
a) Ultra Violet
b) Radio Frequency
c) Infra Red
d) Ultra High frequency
Ans : (b)
26.. (A) Spin Density – (1) Signal is proportional to no. of nuclei present
(B) Spin lattice – (2) Longitudinal relaxation time
(C)Spin-spin – (3) Transverse relaxation time
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (a)
27.. (A) A mode – (1) Reflected echoes are depicted as dots
(B) B mode – (2) unidirectional graphic representation
(C)M /T-M mode – (3) Reflected echoes are depicted as vertical spikes
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (c)
28.. Ultra sound is a form of energy which consists of
S1: Mechanical vibrations of high frequency
S2: Elecrical vibrations of high frequency
a) S1 is true
b) S2 is true
c) S1 and S2 are true
d) S1 and S2 are false
Ans : (a)
29.. CT scanner is highly helpful in
a) Bone tumours
b) Thorax scanning
c) Neck scanning
d) Brain scanning
Ans : (d)
30. The first medical application of LASER was in
a) Gastrology
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Opthalmology
d) Cardiography
Ans : (c)
31. In D.C. defibrillator, a pulse width of 5 to 10 msec duration is generated by means of
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) IC 555
d) Capacitor discharge
Ans : (d)
32.. Micro shock may occur due to flow of
a) 1 ampere current across body surface
b) Few milli ampere current across the cardiac muscles
c) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface for 1 minute
d) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface
Ans : (b)
33. The use of super conducting magnets in MRI is to obtain
a) Signals from surface tissue
b) High R.F. field
c) High strength gradient fields
d) High strength magnetic fields
Ans ; (d)
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