Transducrs MCQ Questions

Transducrs MCQ Questions
1. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)

2. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)

3. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)

4. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)

5. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)

6. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ∆ρ
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)

7. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)

8. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)

9. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)



10. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)

11. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)

12. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)

13. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)

14. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)

15. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)

16. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)

17. ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)

18. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)

19. Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)

20. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)

21. Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)

22. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)

23. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)

24. Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)

25. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)

26. One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)

27. The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)

28. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)

29. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)

30. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)


31. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)

TRANSDUCERS Quiz Electronics Instrument Engineering

TRANSDUCERS Quiz Electronics Instrument Engineering


1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)

2. The transducers that converts the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)

3. A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer
Ans : (d)

4. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT
Ans : (b)

5. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers
Ans : (c)

6. An inverse transducer is a device which converts
a) An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity
b) Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity
c) Electrical energy into thermal energy
d) Electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (a)

7. A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement
Ans : (a)

8. Resolution of a transducer depends on
a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage
Ans : (c)

9. The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)

10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)

11. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of
a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10
Ans : (b)

12. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
a) Change in diameter of the wire
b) Change in length of the wire
c) Change in both length and diameter
d) Change in resistivity
Ans : (c)

13. Bonded wire strain gauges are
a) Exclusively used for construction of transducers
b) Exclusively used for stress analysis
c) Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer
d) Pressure measurement
Ans : (c)

14. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)

15. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ___________ of piezo-electric materials
a) Natural group
b) Synthetic group
c) Natural or Synthetic group
d) Fiber group
Ans : (a)

16. Which of the following are piezo electric substances?
1. Barium titanate
2. Lead titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium and sulphate
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,3and4
c) 1,2and 3
d) 2,3and 4
Ans : (c)

17. Piezo-electric transducers are
a) Passive transducers
b) Inverse transducers
c) Digital transducers
d) Pulse transducers
Ans : (b)

18. Piezo - electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
a) Mechanical force
b) Vibrations
c) Illuminations
d) Heat
Ans : (d)
19. Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
a) When external mechanical force is applied to i
b) When radiant energy stimulates the crystal
c) When external magnetic field is applied
d) When the junction of two such crystals are heated Ans : (a)

20. The draw backs of strain gauges are
S1: Low fatigue life
S2: They are expensive, brittle and sensitive to temperature
S3: Poor linearity
a) S1 and S2
b) S2 and S3
c) S1 and S3
d) S1 only
Ans : (b)

21. LVDT windings are wound on
a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper
Ans : (c)

22. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)

23. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)

24. LVDT is an/a ___________ transducer
a) Magneto-strict ion
b) Inductive
c) Resistive
d) Eddy current
Ans : (d)

25. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)

26. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)


27. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Ans : (b)

28. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic
Ans : (b)

29. Match the following
1. EEG A. Diagnostic tool for heart alignment
2. ECG B. Diagnostic tool for brain alignment
3. Sphygmo-manometer C. Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
4. Stethoscope D. instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (a)

30. Pick the correct statement regarding functions of a transducer
S1: Sense the magnitude, change in & / or frequency of same measurand
S2: To provide electrical output that furnishes accurate, quantitative data about the measurand
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)

Civil Engineering Previous Questions From IES

Civil Engineering Previous Questions From IES
Civil Engineering model question papers for ies
IES / Previous Questions With Answers Civil Engineering
1. What is the ratio of the elastic modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the transverse direction?
(a) 1/2 to 1
(b) 1/10 to 1/20
(c) 1 to 2
(d) l0 to 20
Ans. (c)

2. A circular rod of diameter 30 mm and length 200 mm is subjected to a tensile force. The extension in rod is 0.09 mm and
change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. What is the Poisson’s ratio of the material of the rod?
(a) 0.30
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.35
Ans. (c)

3. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 GPa and Poisson’s ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
(a) 74.0 GPa
(b) 80.0 GPa
(c) 100.0 GPa
(d) 128.5 GPa
Ans. (b)

4. What would be the shape of the failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen subjected to torque?
(a) Cup and cone shape at the centre
(b) Plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(c) Pyramid type wedge-shaped surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(d) Helicoidal surface at 45° to the axis of the specimen
Ans. (d)

5. Given E as the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity?
(a) E/2
(b) E/3
(c) E/4
(d) E/5
Ans. (b)


6. An equipment costs Rs. 25 Lakhs with an estimated salvage value of Rs. 5 Lakhs after 5 years of useful life. What is the
approximate equated annual cost for use of the equipment?
(a) Rs. 4 Lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 13 Lakhs
(d) Rs.17 Lakhs
Ans. (a)

7. Consider the following parameters:
1. The stability of the footing
2. The strength of the boom
3. The counter weight
4. Size of aggregates
Which of the above parameters governs the load capacity of a crane?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

8. A preliminary survey indicated that 20% of the time of a gang of workers is spent idly. What is the total number of observations
required to determine the proportion of idle time with 95 % confidence limit? Critical value at this level of confidence is 1. 96
(a) 236 observations
(b) 246 observations
(c) 256 observations
(d) 266 observations
Ans. (b)

9. Consider the following equipments
1. Drag line
2. Power shovel
3. Hoe
4. Crawler dozer
Which of the above may be used for excavation of materials and loading them into trucks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

10. Consider the following statements
The shear resistance of structural concrete members may be improved by:
1. Axial prestressing
2. Vertical prestressing
3. Inclined prestressing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

11. What shall be the maximum area of reinforcement
(i) In compression and
(ii) In tension to be provided in an RC beam, respectively, as per 1S456?
(a) 0.08% and 2%
(b) 2% and’4%
(c) 4% and 2%
(d) 4% and 4%
Ans. (d)

12. Consider the following statements for minimum reinforcement to be provided .in a wall as a ratio of vertical reinforcement
to gross concrete area.
1. 0.0012 for deformed bars
2. 0.0015 for all other types of bars
3. 0.0012 for welded wire fabric with wires not larger than 16 mm in diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)

13. What is the duration by which the completion time of any activity can be delayed without affecting the start of any of
the suceeding activities?
(a) Interfering float
(b) Free float
(c) Independent float
(d) Total float.
Ans. (b)

14. A, power shovel is fitted with an engine of 150 f.w.h.p. It operates on full load for 6 minutes followed by 8 minutes for idling at
one-third power. Its hourly utilization is for 3 cycles. What is its utilization factor?
(a) 0.398
(b) 0.433
(c) 0.467
(d) 0.528
Ans. (b)

15. A construction equipment has a useful life of 4 years after which it is to be replaced by a new, one. If the interest rate is 6%, what
is the nearest value of the sinking fund factor?
(a) 0.023
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.17
(d) 0.31
Ans. (b)

16. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no large difference in speed between wheeled tractors and crawlers.
2. The operating cost of crawlers is generally more than for wheeled tractors.
3. Both, viz ., wheeled •tractors as well as crawlers, need to be mounted on trailers for long distance hauls.
4. Wheeled tractors may occasionally suffer slips whereas crawlers do not
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following is associated with a critical activity in a A-O-A network?
(a) Maximum float
(b) Minimum float
(c) Zero float
(d) Free float
Ans. (c)

18. A uniform series of income is available in perpetuity, which will yield an amount of Rs. 4,000/- at the end of each 4-year period.
Sinking fund (deposit) factor, @ 8% p.a., for discrete compounding, is 0.222. For the same interest rate, What will the capitalized
equivalent income ‘now’?
(a) Rs. 11,100
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 14,285
(d) Rs. 16,000
Ans. (b)

19. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a single
bay portal frame fixed at base?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans. (b)

20. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
d) 33%
Ans. (a)

civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES

civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES
UPSC Engineering Services Exam civil engineering Model Test Questions
UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering

1. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is
100 hectares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0
cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?
(a) (1.8 to 2) x 104 m3perday
(b) (2.5 to 2.75) x 104 m3per day
(c) (3.0 to3.25) x l04 m3perday
(d) (3.8 to 4.05) x 104 m3perday
Ans. (c)

2. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?
(a) Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period
(b) Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms
(c) Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically
(d) Effective perceptible water
Ans. (c)

3. Consider the following statements:
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which
1. A canal is carried over the drainage channel.
2. A drainage channel ‘is carried over the canal.
3. Both drainage channel and canal are at the same level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (a)

4. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.
2. By recording the drawdown in installed observation wells at different time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

5. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carring laminar flow of a liquid with ji 1.6 centipoise, the
velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the
axis?
(a) 0.01 N/m2
(b).0125N/m2
(c) 0.0175 N/m2
(d) 0.02 N/m2
Ans. (c)

6. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spill. way. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
(a) 27
(b) 10.5
(c) 15
(d) 42
Ans. (b)

7. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth by 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge?
(a) 12%
(b) 20%
(c) 36%
(d) 48%
Ans. (c)

8. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed 4s, then what is the peak water hammer, pressure in m of water?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 120
Ans. (c)

9. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A heterotroph is an organism that obtains
(a) Its cell carbon from an inorganic source
(b) Its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds
(c) Its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter
(d) Its energy from a natural ecosystem
Ans. (c)

10. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
(a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
(b) Magnification pertaining to microscopy
(c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
(d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
(a) Uniform for the full width
(b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
(c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
(d) Of an irregular shape
Ans. (c)

12. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry
density?
(a) Silty clay—Clay—Sand—Grave sand clay mixture
(b) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture—Silty clay—Clay
(c) Clay—Silty clay—Sand— Gravel sand clay mixture
(d) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture— Clay—Silty clay
Ans. (c)

13. Consider the following statements:
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements liven above is correct?
(a). 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below,
the lists;
List-I (Speed) List-II (Application)
A. Space mean speed 1. Road conditions studies
B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)

15. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation?
(a) Driving a drift through the tunne1
(b) ‘Blow in’ method
(c) ‘Blow out’ method
(d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’ methods
Ans. (d)

16. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails?
(a) Wave theory
(b) Percussion theory
(c) Drag theory
(d) Reversal theory
Ans. (d)

17. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 2° curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of 1 in 200?
(a) 1 in 250
(b) 1 in 238
(c) I in 209
(d) I in 198
Ans. (b)

18. Which one of the following is not correct for container ports?
(a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Overall transit time is less
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo
(d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling area
Ans. (b)

19. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted soil
(b) Geomembrane
(c) Geotexile
(d) Geocomposite
Ans. (a)

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollution) List-II (Impact on Human Health)
A. Particulates 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
B. Carbon monoxide 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract
C. Sulphur oxides 3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, headache etc.
D. Photochemical oxidants 4. Causes respiratory illness
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)

21. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
(a) Looping
(b) Inversion
(c) Coning
(d) Lofting
Ans. (d)

22. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?
(a) 80—100 dB
(b) 101—150 dB
(c) 51—70 dB
(d) 40—50 dB
Ans. (c)

23. A rectangular channel 3 wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is .l m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly)?
(a) 0.3 N/m2
(b) 0.15 N/m2
(c) 3.0 N/m2
(d) 1.5 N/m2
Ans. (d)

24. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale of 1: 100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3 /s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype of what magnitude?
(a) 102 m3 /s
(b) 103 m3 /s
(c) 104 m3 /s
(d) 105 m3 /s
Ans. (d)

25. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1: 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?
(a) 15.6kN
(b) 25.3kN
(c) 78kN
(d) 90kN
Ans. (c)

26. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radial distance, measured from the centre?
(a) 0.50R
(b) 0.71R
(c) 0.67 R
(d) 0.29 R
Ans. (b)

27. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s-1. The upstream depth is
2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.3
(c) 2.3
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

28. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge
(perimeter width)?
(a) 1.0 m2/s
(b) 1.4 m2/s
(c) 2.0 m2/s
(d) 2.8 m2/s
Ans. (d)

29. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a
discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the
Froude number of the flow?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6
Ans. (b)

30. Consider the following statements associated with groynes:
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of
particles that constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

31. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
(a) 5.5 m/s
(b) 11.2 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 9m/s
Ans. (a)

32. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate?
(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above MS.L.
Ans. (b)

The following questions consists of two statements , Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions choose any of the following four responses
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true and reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.

33. Assertion (A): A discrete particle (of diameter d0) settling in a circular sedimentation
tank follows a parabolic path.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0)
in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.
Ans. (a)

34. Assertion (A): Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting
Unconfined compression test.
Reason (R): The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for dry
and saturated sands, in drained condition.
Ans. (d)

35. Assertion (A): Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the structure is difficult.
Ans. (b)

36. Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil
in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 110° C.
Reason (R): The free water, absorbed water and structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 110° C.
Ans. (c)

37. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on
the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above
the sea level are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and
the lighthouse?
(a) 29.8 km
(b) 31.1 km
(c) 31.9 km
(d) 33.2 km
Ans. (b)

38. Match List-I with List-il and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists;
List-I (Instrument) List-II (Use)
A. Sub tense bar 1. To determine difference in elevation between points
B. Sextant 2. To determine horizontal distance
C. Tangent clinometers 3. To measure angles
D. Range finder 4. To establish right angles
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)

39. Which one of the following instruments can be used as clinometers? -
(a) Prism square
(b) Line ranger
(c) Abney level
(d) Optical square
Ans. (c)

40. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans. (b)