Electronics Solved Quiz on circuit theory

Electronics Solved Quiz on circuit theory
Circuit Theory Solved Question
1. Ohm’s law applicable for
(a) linear circuits only
(b) non linear circuits only
(c) both linear and non linear circuits
(d) none of these
Ans: a
2. Unit of current is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: a
3. What is the equivalent resistance when 10 Ohms and 20 Ohms resistors are connected
in series
(a) 35 Ohms
(b) 25 Ohms
(c) 30Ohms
(d) none of these
Ans: c
4. Form factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: d
5. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) V_M/3
(b) V_M/2
(c) V_M/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: c
6. Power factor for resistive load is
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
(d) 0.2
Ans: b
7. voltage is a ------quantity
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Scalar and Vector
(d) none of these
Ans: b
8. In D.C , Capacitor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) either (a)or (b)
(d) none of these
Ans: b
9 In 3 phase star circuit, phase voltage is
(a) V_Ph =Ö3 V_L
(b) V_Ph = V_L /Ö3
(c) V_Ph = V_L
(d) V_Ph =3 V_L
Ans: b
10. In 3 phase delta circuit, line current is
(a) I_L =I _Ph
(b) I_L =2 I _Ph
(c) I_L =3 I _Ph
(d) I_L =Ö3 I _Ph
Ans:d
11. What is the equivalent resistance when 20Ohms and 20Ohms resistors are
connected in parallel
(a) 45 Ohms
(b) 10Ohms
(c) 54 Ohms
(d) 30Ohms
Ans: b
12. Voltage-Current relationship in resistor element is
(a) In phase
(b) Out of phase
(c) No Relation
(d) constant
Ans:a
13. For high voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: b
14. What is the unit of Reactive Power
(a) KVA
(b) KW
(c) HP
(d) KVAR
Ans:d
15. R.M.S Value of Half wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) V_M/3
(b) V_M/2
(c) V_M/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: b
16. Current is defined as
(a) Charge/time
(b) Time/charge
(c) power/time
(d) None of these
Ans:a
17. Active elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors only
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: d
18. In Bilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: b
19. D.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: d
20. In Capacitive circuit, Current flows in the capacitor
(a) i=C (dv/dt)
(b) i=V(dc/dt)
(c) i=C(di/dt)
(d) i=Ct
Ans: a
21. Unit of voltage is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: b
22. Peak factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: c
23. Average value is
(a) area/period
(b) period/area
(c) length/area
(d) none of these
Ans: a
24. Unit of power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) joules
Ans:c
25. Unit of apparent power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:d
26. Unit of energy is
(a) KWH
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:a
27. A.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: b
28. Passive elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors ,inductors and capacitors
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: c
29. In D.C , inductor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) both (a)&(b)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
30. In Unilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: a
31. Workdone is
(a) F.d
(b) E/F
(c) IR
(d) None of these
Ans: a
32. Unit of Resistance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) ohms
Ans: d
33. Unit of inductance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: d
34. Unit of capacitance is
(a) Ampere
(b) farad
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
35. For high current applications which type of 3 phase circuit is Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
36. For low voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
37. Unit of charge is
(a) Ampere
(b) coulomb
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
38. EMF is
(a) Election motion force
(b) Electrical motion force
(c) Electro motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
39. MMF is
(a) Magnetic motive force
(b) Magnetic motion force
(c) Magneto motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
40. Voltage-Current relationship in inductor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: c
41. Voltage-Current relationship in capacitor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: b
42. When two inductors are connected in series, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) 1/(L1+L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: a
43. When two capacitors are connected in series, equivalent capacitance is
(a) C1+C2
(b) 1/(C1+C2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) (1/c1)+(1/c2)
Ans: d
44. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) V_M/3
(b) V_M/2
(c) V_M/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans:c
45. Form factor of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) 1.21
(b) 1.11
(c) 4.44
(d) none of these
Ans: b
46. Power factor for pure inductor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: c
47. Power factor for pure capacitor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
48. Frequency is defined as
(a) No of cycles/sec
(b) time/cycles
(c) 1/cycles
(d) None of these
Ans: a
49. In Series resistive circuit, voltage across each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) constant
(c) no change
(d) None of these
Ans: a
50. In Series resistive circuit current through each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) same
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Ans:b
51. When two inductors are connected in parallel, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: b
52. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, equivalent capacitance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) C1+C2
(d) None of these
Ans:c
53.A sinusoidal Wave form is
a)sine wave form
b) triangle wave form
c) both(a)&(b)
d)none of these
Ans:a
54. In 3 phase delta circuit, phase voltage is
(a) V_Ph =Ö3 V_L
(b) V_Ph = V_L /Ö3
(c) V_Ph = V_L
(d) V_Ph =3 V_L
Ans: c
55. In 3 phase star, line current is
(a) I_L =I _Ph
(b) I_L =2 I _Ph
(c) I_L =3 I _Ph
(d) I_L =Ö3 I _Ph
Ans:a

Free Online Practice test on Electronics

Free Online Practice test  on Electronics
Free Electronics Online Practice Test
Free Online Electronic Engineering Practice and Preparation test
1. UPS is
a. Uninterrupted power supply
b. Unlimited power supply
c. United power supply
d. None of these
Ans. a
2. UPS is a device which maintains continuous supply of ______ to the system connected
a. Electric power
b. Magnetic power
c. EMF
d. Resistance
Ans. a
3. _________ Supplies power when utility is not available.
a. AC mains
b. DC mains
c. UPS
d. SMPS
Ans. C
4. Types of UPS are
a. Switch on and offline UPS
b. Off line and on line UPS
c. Standard and normal ups
d. Power UPS
Ans. b
5. Diode is a combination of
a. Two electrons
b. Two electrodes
c. Two elements
d. Two capacitors
Ans. b
6. How many types of crystal diode rectifiers are there?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans. a
7. In half wave rectification, the rectifier conducts current only in _____of input ac supply.
a. Positive half cycle
b. Negative half cycle
c. Neutral
d. Both a and b
Ans. a
8. RMS value of current in half wave rectifier is
a. Im/?2
b. Im/2
c.2Im/Em
d. Em/2
Ans b
9. The transformer isolates the rectifier circuit form power line and thus reduces
a. Electric shock
b. Current loss
c. Resistance loss
d. Transformer
Ans. a
10. The pulsations in the output are further smoothening with the help of _________circuit.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Filter
d. Transistor
Ans. c
11. The ratio of dc power output to the applied input of rectifier is known as
a. Power
b. Rectification efficiency
c. Utility factor
d. Working efficiency
Ans. b
12. In half wave rectification, a maximum of _______of ac power is rectifier.
a. 40%
b. 40.6%
c. 40.9%
d. 80.1%
Ans. b
13. The rectifier which contains 2 diodes is called
a. Full wave rectifier
b. Half wave rectifier
c. Centre – tap rectifier Full wave rectifier
d. Bridge full wave rectifier
Ans. c
14. Bridge full wave rectifier consists of ………… number of diodes.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
Ans. c
15. The efficiency of full wave rectifier is
a. 40%
b. 40.6%
c. 81.2%
d. 80% Ans. c
16. A power supply which maintains the voltage constant irrespective of ac main fluctuations or load variations is known as
a. DC power supply
b. DC regulated power supply
c. Steady power supply
d. None of these
Ans. B
17. A dc regulate supply uses a for power regulation.
a. Transformer
b. Transistor
c. Capacitor
d. Zener diode
Ans. d
18. The process in which an ac voltage is converted into a unidirectional dc voltage is known as
a. Rectification
b. Conversion
c. Transformation
d. Regulation
Ans. a
19. When forward biased, junction diode offers
a. High resistance
b. Low resistance
c. No resistance
d. None of these
Ans. b
20. In the rectifier circuits the ac supply form mains is given through ______ for transformation.
a. Amplifier
b. Transformer
c. Diode
d. Load resistor
Ans. b
21. The ac supply to be rectified in half wave rectifier is applied in series with
a. Diode and load resistance
b. Load resistance and transformer
c. Diode and regulated power supply
d. Two diode
Ans. a
22. An AC rectifier which rectifies both the positive and negative ac half cycles of input wave are called
a. Half wave rectifier
b. Full wave rectifier
c. Transformation rectifier
d. None of these
Ans. b
23. In full – wave rectifier the direction of current in load resistor is ____________ for both half cycles of ac.
a. Opposite
b. Same
c. Different
d. None of these
Ans. b
24. The expression for peak inverse voltage, in case of centre – tap full wave rectifier is
a. 2Vm
b. Vm
c. Vm/2
d. 3Vm
Ans. a
25. In on line UPS ________ batteries are used earlier
a. semiconductor
b. ionic
c. Lead – acid
d. Ordinary
Ans. b
26. Large UPS units typically work in conjunction with
a. Motor
b. Batteries
c. Generator
d. Transformer
Ans. c
27. SMPS are classified into _______ types depending up its input / output.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
Ans. c
28. SMPS with ac input and dc output is used as
a. Current converter
b. Frequency changer
c. Rectifier
d. cycle converter
Ans. c
29. SMPS with dc input and ac output is used as
a. Current converter
b. Frequency changer
c. Rectifier
d. Inverter
Ans. d
30. Linear power supplies use a transformer operating at the mains frequency of ______ Hz.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 50 or 60
d. none of these
Ans. C
31. SMPS use transformer operating at the frequency of ___________
a. 50 Hz to 1 kHz
b. 50 kHz to 1 kHz
c. 5 kHz to 1MHz
d. 50 kHz to 10MHz
Ans. b
32. The applied ac power to a half wave rectifier is 100W the ac output power obtained is 40W.the rectification efficiency is
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
Ans. b

civil engineering free objective test

civil engineering free objective test
Free Online Civil Engineering Objective Questions
Practice Objective and Practice Questions for Civil Engineering

 1.  Consider the following statements :
Torsional restraint in a beam can be achieved by providing.
1. Web or Range cleats at the end connections
2. External support  to the end of the compression Range
3, Bearing stiffness acting in conjunction with the bearing of the beam
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)  1 only                  
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and    3 only       
(d)   I, 2 and 3

Ans :  d
2. Considering  modular  ratio  as  13,  grade  of concrete as M20 and  grade  of  steel as 415,
what is the ratio of balanced depth of neutral axis' as per  working  stress  method  to  the
balanced depth of  neutral  axis  as  per limitstate method?
(a)  12/7
(b)   11/3
(c) 7/12
(d)   I3/11

Ans :  c
3. What  is  the  anchorage  value  a  standard hook of a reinforcement bar of diameter D?
(a) 4D
 (b) 8D
(c) I2D
(d)   I6D

Ans :  d

4. How is the. base-level  bending moment of a cantileverretaining  wall  expressed  as  a
function of  its height H?
(a) H1
(b) H2               
(c) H3
(d) H4  

Ans :  c

5. What  is  the  adopted  maximum  spacing between vertical stirrups in an RCC beam of
rectangular corns-section having an effective depth of 300 mm?
(a)300 mm               
(b) 275 mm
(c) 250 mm              
(d)  225 mm

Ans :  d
 6.  A  power  shovel  is  fitted  with an  engine  of 150  f.w.h.p .  It  operates  on  full  load  for
6 minutes followed by 8 minutes for idling at one-third power.  Its~hourly  utilization  is  for
3 cycles What is its utilization factor?
 (a)  0.398                    
 (b)  0.433
(c)   0.467                     
(d)  0.528

Ans :  b

7.A construction equipment has a  useful life of  4      years after which it is to be replaced by a
new one. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the nearest value of the sinking fund factor?  
(a)   0.023                     
(b)   0.23
(c)   0.17  
(d)   0.31
Ans :  b

8. Consider the following statements~ :   
1.     There  is  no  large  difference  in  speed between wheeled tractors and crawlers.
 2. The operating cost of crawlers is generally  more than for wheel d tractors.   
 3. Both  wheeled  tractors  as well  as crawlers,  need  to be .mounted  on  trailers. for long distance hauls.
 4.  Wheeled tractors   may occasionally  suffer slips whereas crawlers do not
Which  of  the  above  statements  is/are  NOTcorrect?
(a)1  only                   
b)  1 and 2
(c)   1  and 3                  
(d)   3 and 4

Ans :  d


9  A 1.75 m3 capacity tractor loader has to  forward loaded  speed  of  240  m/min, returning
unloaded speed of 300 m/ min and operates at   80% of the specified speed. It hauls earthmover
a distance of  60  m  with fixed time  per trip    being 25 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?                                      

(a)  54.25  seconds
(b)  55.50  seconds
(c)   56.75  seconds         
(d)  58.75  seconds

Ans :  d

Directoions .'  Each of the next Six (06) items consists of  two  statements,  one  Labeled  as  the  assertion
(A) and  the  other  as  ‘Reason  (R).  You  are  to examine  these  two  statements  carefully and  select
the  answers  to  these  items  using  the  codes  given below :
Codes :
(a)  Both A  and  R are individually  true  and  R  is the correct explanation of A
(b)   Both A and R are individual true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c)   A is true but R is false                                   
(d)  A is false ,but R is true    


10 Assertion (A) : The rate of hydration is faster in       finer cements,                           
Reason (R) : the surface area of finer cement, is more in case of finer cement.

Ans : a


11.Assertion (A) : Strength of concrete is reduced due, to segregation
Reason  (R)  :  Reducing  the  workability  of concrete mix results in segregation.

Ans :  c

12 Assertion  (A).  : The  lower  the  difference between the minimum strength and the mean strength  of  a  concrete  mix,  the  lower  the cement content to be used.
Reason (R) : The method for controlling the difference between the minimum strength and
the mean strength is quality control.

Ans :  d

13.Assertion (A) : Shearing force may be defined      as the rate of change of loading moment.~
Reason CR) : Shearing force at a section is the algebraic sum of the forces to the  left of the section.

Ans :  b

14.  Assertion (A)  : The provision  of  lateral reinforcement  in  RCC  columns  is  not
mandatory.
Reason (R) : The lateral reinforcement in RCC columns helps in prevention possible bulking    of               longitudinal reinforcement

Ans :  d

15.Assertion   (A)   :   Method   of   moment distribution in classifiable as a force method
Reason (R) : The method consists computing end  moments  due  to  end  rotation  of  the
member.   
Ans :  d
   

Sample objective Questions mining for SAIL ONGC NMDC and other Mining Jobs

 Sample objective Questions mining for SAIL ONGC NMDC and other Mining Jobs
objective type questions and answers in mining
Physical Geology Free Multiple Choice Questions


Q.1: The lines joining points or equal vertical thickness in a bed known as:
a) lsopaches.
b) Isothicks.
c) Contours.
d) Isochores.
Answer:(d)

Q.2: Fine adjustment in Theodolite is done by:
(a) Clamp screw.
(b) Tangent screw.
(c) Focusing screw.
(d) Foot screws.
Answer. (b)

Q.3: lsopaches are:
a) Lines joining points of equal vertical thickness in a bed.
b) Lines joining points of equal true thickness in a bed.
c) Lines joining points of equal elevation.
d) Lines of equal pressure.
Answer:(b)

Q.4:The difference between crushing and grinding:
a) Crushing produces relatively coarse material while grinding produces fine material.
b) ln crushing procedure crusher jaws and rolls do not touch each other, while in grinding
procedure the machine parts come into contact with each other.
c) Crushing operation is commonly intermittent while grinding is generally continuous operation.
d) All the above.
Answer:(d)


Q.5: The function of collectors in ore beneficiation is:
a) As a catalyst.
b) To remove the water.
c) As a flotation regents.
d) To remove the impurities.
Answer:(c)

Q.6: ----- ls the process of agglomerating the fine particles by application of pressure:
a) Briquetting
b) Sintering
c) Pelletizing.
   d) Nodulising.
Answer:(a)

Q.7: The most natural magnetic mineral is:
a) Hematite.
b) Magnetite.
c) Limenite.
d) Franklinite.
Answer:(b)


Q.8: To activate Sphalerite, the activator is:
a) Sulphuric acid.
b) Sodium silicate.
c) Sodium sulphate.
d) Copper sulphate.
Answer:(d)

Q.9: For the depression of silicates and quartz in mineral beneficiation, the depressant……
is used:
a) Sodium silicate.
b) Sulphuric
c) Sodium sulphate.
d) Copper sulphate.
Answer:(a)

Q.10: Classifiers are:
a) Used to mix the materials of different sizes.
b) Used to separate the materials of different sizes
c) Substances, which are mixed during crushing process of the ore.
d) The parts of a grinding machine.
Answer:(b)

   Q.11: The magnetic susceptibility of any mineral depends on:
a) Its crystal structure.
b) Its chemical composition.
c) Its crystal structure and chemical composition.
d) Mode of formation of the mineral.
Answer:(c)

Q.12: Which of the following method is used, when the size range of particles between minus
8 to plus 28 meshes:
a) Gevity separation.
b) Heavy media separation.
c) Tabling.
d) Jigging.
Answer:(d)

Q.13: The use to screen in ore beneficiation is:
a) To measure the grain sizes.
b) To size the crushed and ground material.
c) To separate the gangue minerals from ore.
d) To sort out the magnetic susceptible minerals.
 Answer:(b)

Q.14: The specific gravity of the barites is:
a) 4.8
b) 5.2
c) 5.4
d) 5.8
Answer:(a)


Q.15: “Tabling" method of separation is usually applied when the particle size range between:
a) Minus 10 to plus 100 meshes.
b) Minus 20 to plus 200 meshes.
c) Minus 28 to plus 200 meshes.
d) Minus 42 to plus 300 meshes.
Answer:(c)

Q.16: What is the maximum flotation pH of chalcopyrite?
a) 14.0
b) 13.8
c) 13.2
d) 11.8
Answer:(d)


Q.17 : Which of the following methods of agglomeration involves two basic steps - balling
and firing?
a) Briquetting.
b) Sintering.
c) Pelletizing.
d) Nodulising.
Answer:(c)

Q.18: Polygonal method of reserve estimation is used when:
a) Drill holes are equally spaced.
b) Drill holes occur in rectangular grid.
c) Drill holes are irregularly spaced.
d) Drill holes are considered to form.
 Answer:(c)

Q.19: isochors are lines lolling the points of equal:
a) Thickness of an ore body measured by perpendicular drill holes.
b) Thickness of an ore body measured by inclined drill holes.
c) Thickness of an ore body measured by Vertical drill holes.
d) Depth of an ore body.
Answer:(c)

Q.20: Drift in mining terminology means:
a) The same as tunnel.
b) The same as admit.
c) A horizontal tunnel parallel to the strike of the lode.
d) Opening from the shaft, passing through the country rock and reaches to the ore body
Answer:(c)

Q.21: Cut off grade is:
a) The grade of ore ultimately fed to the beneficiation plant.
b) The grade of ore below which mining is uneconomical.
c) The grade of ore throughout the ore body.
d) Always the same as average grade.
Answer:(b)

Q.22: Salting of an ore is done:
a) By adding common salt.
b) By removing salt from the ore.
c) By mixing substances for increasing the values in the ore samples.
d) By mixing substances for lowering the values in the ore samples.
Answer:(a)

Q.23: Lines joining the points of equal elevation are known as:
a) Contours.
b) Isochrones.   
c) Isopaches.
d) Stratum contours.
Answer:(d)

Civil Engineering Practice Questions Set For SAIL GAIL

Civil Engineering Practice Questions Set For SAIL GAIL

Civil engineering practice Questions
online Objective test Civil Engg
1. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one-third of
its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Ans : D
2. In accordance to ‘Gauss rule”, weights to be assigned are proportional to
A. l/(Sum of the residual errors of observations)
B. l/(Sum of the square of the residual
errors of observations)
C. Sum of the square roots of the residual
errors of observations
D. Sum of the cube roots of the residual errors of observations
Ans : B


3. Which one of the following traffic signal systems is useful when there is continuous operation of group of vehicles along the main road?
A. Simultaneous system
B. Alternate system
C. Simple progressive system
D. Flexible progressive system
Ans : C

4. Consider the following statements:
I. In clay soils, the maximum dry weight tends to decrease as plasticity increases.
2. In clay soils, the maximum dry unit weight tends to increase as plasticity
increases.
3. Heavy clays with high plasticity have the minimum dry unit weight and high OMC.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. I and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. I and 3 only
Ans : D
5. The shape of the recession limb of a
hydrograph depends on
A. Basin .as well as storm characteristics
B. Storm characteristics only
C. Basin characteristics only
D. Base flow only
Ans : C

6. The declination of a celestial body is the arc of the declination circle intercepted between
that body and the
A. Prime vertical through that body
B. Azimuth of the body
C. Equinoxes of the Earth
D. Equator of the Earth
Ans : D

7. Consider the following statements:
1. Poorly graded or uniform sands compact to low dry unit weights.
2. Heavy clays with high plasticity have very low maximum dry unit weight.
3. In clay soils, the maximum dry weight tends to decrease as plasticity increases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Ans : C
8. A direct-runoff hydro graph due to an isolated storm was triangular in shape with a base of 80 h and peak of 200 m3/s If the catchment area is 1440 km2 the effective rainfall of the storm is
A 20cm
B. 10cm
C. 5cm
D. 2cm
Ans : D
9. In a water treatment, the optimum time of flocculation is usually given as 30 minutes. In case the time of flocculation is increased beyond this value, then the floes will
A. become heavy and settle down in flocculation itself
B. entrap air and will float in the sedimentation tank
C. break up and defeat the purpose of flocculation
D. stick to the paddles
Ans : B

10. Consider the following:
1. Line ranger
2. Reciprocal ranging
3. Random line method
4. Optical square
Which of these are the correct methods of ranging employed to solve the problem of vision obstructed but with chaining free?
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans : B

11. A centrifugal pump will start delivering t liquid only when
A. Manometer head is greater than total head
B .Head developed tends to exceed the manometric head
C. head developed in a centrifugal pump is due to pressure head only
D. Head developed is negligible
Ans : B
12. Consider the following statements:
1. A streamline is an imaginary line within the flow for which the normal at any point relates to the acceleration at that point.
2. Convective acceleration is the change in velocity with respect to distance only.
3. Temporal acceleration expresses variation of velocity with respect to time only.
4. Both convective acceleration and temporal acceleration can coexist.
Which of these statements are correct related
to fluid kinematics?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1,2and3only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only


Ans : D

13.Error due to inclination of line of collimation in leveling across a river can be eliminated by
A. Reversion
B. Reciprocal ranging
C. Reciprocal leveling
D. Keeping level in middle
Ans : C
14. Full amount of super-elevation on a horizontal curve is provided at the.
A. beginning of the transition curve
B. centr6 of the circular curve -
C. end of the transition curve
D. centre of the transitive curve

Ans : C

15. Consider the following in the context of
variations in magnetic declination:
1. Secular
2. Diurnal
3. Annual
4. Regular
Which of these are relevant?
A.1,2and3
B. 1,2and4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

Ans : A

Sample Questions Electrical Engineering Basede on Actual Questions of UPSC IAS

Sample Questions Electrical Engineering Basede on Actual Questions of UPSC IAS
Engineering Question UPSC based on Real Question Papers
IAS Prelims Papers Free online solved Questions of Electrical Engineering


1. In India, the maximum frequency deviation in commercial FM broadcasting signals is about
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 15 kHz
(c) 75 kHz
(d) 200 kHz

Ans:-B


2. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(a) √2
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

Ans:-A

3. For any amplifier configuration using a BJT, the input Impedance R i is
(a) h i (l + h fe )
(b) h i / (1—h r Av)
(c) h i / (1+h r Av)
(d) h i / (1 + h fe )

Ans:-B

4. The range of numbers that can be represented in two’s complement mode with four binary digits is
(a) —15 to +15
(b) —8 to + 8
(c) —8 to +7
(d) —7 to +7

Ans:-A

5. Cycle time of a Random Access Memory is the time required between successive
(a) accesses to memory
(b) clocks
(c) delete operations
(d) Read / Write operations

Ans:-A


6. The INTEL 8080 microprocessors has a set of 91 Instructions. The op-code to Implement this Instruction set should be of at least
(a) 6 bits
(b) 4 bits
(c) 7 bits
(d) 8 bits

Ans:-C






7. Consider the following assembly language code for a simple computer having one register only:
LOAD X
ADD Y
STORE T1 STORE T2
MULT Z MULT T1
ADD T2 STORE R
Which one of the following arithmetic expressions does it evaluate?
(a) R:Z2(1+X+Y)2
(b) R:Z2(X+Y)2+(X+Y)
(c) R:=Z(X+Y)2+(X+Y)2
(d) R:=Z(X+Y)2+(X+Y)

Ans:-D


8. Consider the following statements regarding a ‘smart’ terminal:
1. It is a minimal system containing almost no memory.
2. It contains a small microcomputer or minicomputer.
3. It permits text editing.
4. It enables checking of typing errors made by operators.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans:-C

9. The unit step response of a second order linear system with zero initial states is given by c (t) = 1 + 1.25 exp (— 6t) sin (8t — tan-1 1.333), t ≥ 0.
The damping ratio and the undamped natural frequency of oscillation of the system are respectively
(a) 0.6 and l0 rad/s
(b) 0.6 and l2.5 rad/s
(c) 0.8 and l0 rad/s
(d) 0.8 and 12.5 rad/s

Ans:-A


10. Type of a system depends on the
(a) number of its poles
(b) difference between the number of poles and zeros
(c) number of its real poles only
(d) number of poles it has at the origin

Ans:-D


11. The final value of function F(s) = 5 / s (s 2 + s + 2)
is equal to
(a) zero
(b) 2 / 5
(c) 5/2
(d) 5

Ans:-C

12. Consider the following statements:
1. P-D controller is equivalent to a high pass filter.
2. For better performance, integral action s initiated before derivative action.
3. High proportional gain is an alternative to derivative action.
4. A practical PID controller uses a high gain amplifier in the forward path.
Which of these statements are NOT correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l and 4

Ans:-C

13. In measuring the distributed capacitance ‘C d’ of a certain coil using Q-meter, initial resonance at frequency 2 MHz is obtained by tuning the capacitance set to 430pF. If resonance at 4MHz is obtained by tuning the capacitance set to 100 pF, then the value of ‘C d’ would be
(a) 10 pF
(b) 20 pF
(c) l00 pF
(d) 200 pF

Ans:-A

14. Match List I (Measurements). with List II (Transduction principles) and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
A. rpm
B. Temperature
C. Static pressure
D. Current
List II
1. Variable resistance
2. Hall effect
3. Piezoelectric effect
4. Variable reluctance
5. Variable capacit4nce
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 1 4 5 2
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 4 1 2 3

Ans:-A


15. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor of 2 is fastened to a steel member subjected to a stress of 10.5 x 10’ kN/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 2.1 x k N /m2. The change of resistance due to stress in the strain gauge is
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 1%
(d) 10%

Ans:-A


16. How many comparators are there In an ADC with 0— 5V Input and 8 bit output assuming a flash converter?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 40
(d) 255

Ans:-D



17. The ratio of the electrical resistance of a material at 300 K to Its electrical resistance at 4 K is 5.
This material could be
(a) an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) an extrinsic semiconductor
(c) an insulator
(d) a conductor

Ans:-D



18. In a ferromagnetic material, the magnetic field is Increased gradually from zero. The first process which sets in the material to give net magnetization is the
(a) growth of favourable oriented domains at
the cost of other domains by reversible domain wall movement
(b) growth of favourable oriented domains at the cost of other domains by irreversible domain wall movement
(c) alignment of domain walls with the grain boundaries
(d) rotation of domains in the direction of the applied field.

Ans:-C

19. For the epitaxial growth of material M to be possible on the substrate of material N,
(a) the lattice constants of M and N must be same
(b) M and N must not react with each ‘other
(c) the coefficients of thermal expansion of M and N must be equal
(d) M must have a lower density than N

Ans:-A


20. Silicon nitride is used as the cover layer in MOS technology because it is
(a) easy to deposit
(b) resistant to oxidation
(c) an excellent barrier to alkali ions
(d) an excellent mask for gallium

Ans:-B

Civil Engineering MCQ test

Civil Engineering MCQ test
Multiple choice questions Civil Engineering
Free MCQ Civil Engineering Practice test

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The hydraulic head at a point in the soil includes piezometric head as well as datum head.

2. Piping in soil occurs when effective pressure becomes equal to zero.

3. Piping in soil occurs when soil is highly porous.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Ans: C

2. Considerable loss of shear due to shock for disturbance is orbited by

A. Under-consolidated clays -

B. Normally consolidated clays

C. Over-consolidated clays

D. Organic soil

Ans: A

3. Consider the following statements:

In aerial photogrammetry the ‘filter’ is placed in front of the lens to

1. reduce the effect of atmospheric haze. -

2. protect the lens from dust.

3. Provide uniform light distribution over the format.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

 D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

4. A. partially open sluice gate is suddenly raised to its full opening. The resulting surge waves at the gate are

A. a positive wave travels towards, the gate from the upstream side while a negative wave travels downstream from the gate

B. a positive wave travels from the gate onto the upstream side while a positive wave travels downstream from the gate.

C. a negative wave travels from the gate or to the upstream side while a positive wave travels downstream from the gate

D. a negative wave travels towards the gate from the upstream side whereas a positive wave travels downstream from the gate

Ans: C

5. Consider the following statements; Apparent cohesion in sands is exhibited mainly due to

1. Reduction in density.

2. Increase in density.

3., Capillary moisture in pores.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only .

 D. 2 only

Ans: B

6. A catchment of area 200 ha has a runoff coefficient 0.5. A storm of duration larger than the time of concentration of the catchment and of intensity 3.6 cm/h causes a peak discharge (m³/s of

A. 5       

B.10

C.100    

D. 360

Ans: B

7 . Consider the following statements:

The coefficient of permeability k depends upon

1. . Void ratio of the soil.

2. Duration of flow.

3. Equivalent diameter of the soil grains.

4. Shape of the particle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4 only

Ans: C

8. Zigzag deposition and movement of sand on seabeach is called

A.Littoral drift   

B. Beach drift

C.Trough action               

D. Sedimentation

Ans: A

9.‘Iso-centre’ is the point

A. in which the tilted axis of the camera meets the vertical photograph

B. in which the bisector of the angle of tilt meets the vertical photograph

C. in air space, the location of the optical cer of the lens of the camera at the time’ of exposure

D. where the perpendicular from the nodal point meets the photograph

Ans: B

10. Calibration of a current meter which used in channel flow measurement done in a—

A. Wind tunnel

B. Water tunnel

C. Tank

D. None of these

Ans: C

11. A catchment consists of 30% area with runoff coefficient 0.40 with the remaining 70% area with runoff coefficient 0.60. The equivalent runoff coefficient will be

A.0.48  

B. 0.54

C.0.63   

D. 0.76

Ans: B

12. Ombrometer (pluviometer) is used to measure

A. Soil moisture stress of a plant

B. Rainfall depth

C. Leaf area

D. Root zone depth

Ans: B

13. Secondary clarifier of an activated sludge process must be designed for  effluent clarification and solids thickening, both of which relate directly to the

A. Surface area

B. Transport velocity due to sludge withdrawal

C. Gravity settling of solids relative to the water

D. Underflow solids concentration

Ans: B

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The yield of a retaining wall required to reach plastic equilibrium in active case is more than that in positive case.

2. Culman’s graphical method is a simplified version of the more general trial wedge method.

3. For a masonry gravity retaining wall Coulomb’s theory of earth pressure is preferred for designing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Ans: C

15. In the facultative pond systems, the aerobic  zone may get extended downwards due to

A. calm waters along with weak sunlight

B. mixing by wind action along with weak sunlight

C. mixing by wind action along with penetrations by sunlight

D. calm waters along with penetration by sunlight

Ans: C

16. The maximum height of a low gravity dam of elementary profile made of concrete of relative density 2.5 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 3.87 MPa without considering uplift force is about

A.113m

B. 217m

C.279m

D. 325 m

Ans: A

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Westergaard’s theory of stress distribution is more appropriate for soil deposits which exhibit large lateral strain.

2. Newmark’s influence chart can be used for the determination of vertical stress under any slope of a loaded area.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.1 only               

B. 2 only

C. Both I and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D

18. Consider the following devices as likely to concern with water hammer phenomenon in

their design/operation:

1. Hydraulic ram

2. Hydraulic accumulator

3. Penstock

4. Surge tank

5. Draft tube

Which of the above devices is/are so concerned?

A. 1,2,3,4 and 5

B. 1,3 and 4only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Ans: B

19. The wave height, in metres, generated on the surface of a reservoir, having a fetch length F = 30 km. due to wind blowing on the surface of the reservoir at a velocity of 30 km/hr. is

A.0.26 m             

B. 0.96 m

C.0.52 m              

D. 1.2 m

Ans: B

20. A ski-jump bucket is generally used as an energy dissipater  when the tail water

A. is greater than 1.1 times the required conjugate depth for the formation of hydraulic jump; and the river bed rock is ‘good’

B. depth is lesser than the depth required for the jump formation; and the bed of the river channel is composed of ‘sound’ rock

C. depth. is equal to the depth required for the jump formation, and the river bed rock is ‘good’

D. depth is 1.3 times the required for the jump formation, and the river bed is composed of ‘weak’ rock

Ans: B

GK Geography questions for IES

GK Geography questions for IES
GK for IES General Ability
1. Which one is associated with the work of gladers?
(a) Corrosion
(b) Attrition
(c) Corrosion
(d) Plucking
ANSWER (D)

2.Arrange the following soil particle by size in the descending order
I. Gravel
ll. Clay
III. Silt
IV. Sand
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, Il, III, I
(c) I, IV, Ill, II
(d) III, IV, I, II
ANSWER (C)

3. Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) I, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (D)

4.Which is the proper order of seismic waves as they are received at seismograph station ?
(a) L-wave, P-wave, S-wave
(b) P-wave, L-wave, S-wave
(c) P-wave, S-wave, L-wave
(d) S-wave, P-wave, L-wave
ANSWER (C)



5. The epicenter of an earthquake is the :
(a) point where P-waves touch the surface
(b) nearest point to the surface from the focus perpendicular to the earth’s surface
(c) point of intersection of P and 5 wave fronts
(d) antipodal point
ANSWER (B)


6. Which of the following belts are associated with seismic activity?
1. Circum-Pacific Belt
2. Circum-Atlantic Belt
3. Mid-Continental Belt
4. Mid-Atlantic Belt
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (B)

7.The movement inside the Earth’s crust is studied by
(a) Geodesy
(b) Geology
(c) Plate Tectonics
(d) Seisrnology
ANSWER (D)




8. Consider the following rocks
1. Coal
2. Dolerite
3. Granite
4. Limestone
Which of the above is/are sedimentary rocks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 r
(d) 4 only
ANSWER (C)

9. Match the following:
Highest peak Country
A. Mount Logan 1. Australia
B. Mount McKinley 2. USA
C. Mount Kosciusko 3. Canada
' A B C
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1
(d ) 2 3 1
ANSWER (C)

10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of increasing depth '?
(a) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(b) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(c) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
(d) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
ANSWER (C)

11. Given below are names of four oceans :
1. Atlantic
2. Arctic
3. Indian
4. Pacific
The correct order of these oceans from the Smallest to the biggest in terms of area is.:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
ANSWER (B)

12. In which one of the following is Malta Located?
(a)Baltic sea
(b) mediterranean sea
(c) Black Sea .
(d) North Sea
ANSWER (B)
13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Most reef-forming corals prefer sea temperature between 17 °C and 33 °c
(b) Coral growth is usually restricted to the upper 25 or 30 m of the sea
(c) Coral animals belong to the organisms of Phylum Porifera
(d) Coral animals live in a mutualistic relationship with algae
ANSWER (B)


14.The important fishing areas called Grand Bank and Georges Bank located in the waters
of which one of the following?
(a) North Pacific
(b) South Pacific
(c) South-west Atlantic
(d) North-west Atlantic
ANSWER (D)

15.Match the following :
A. Fringing 1. wide coral reef separated
Reef from the coastline by a
wide deep lagoon
B. Barrier 2. uneven platform of coral
Reef separated from the
mainland by a narrow
shallow lagoon
C. Atoll 3. circular/elliptical/horse
shoe shaped coral reef
enclosing a lagoon
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2
ANSWER (A)

16.What is the correct decreasing order of the share of different salts in sea water ?
(a) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,magnesium sulphate, potassium
sulphate
(b) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium sulphate
(c) sodium chloride, magnesium sulphate,potassium sulphate, magnesium chloride
(d) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium
sulphate
ANSWER (A)

17.Sunda Trench lies in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Antarctic Ocean
ANSWER (C)

18.Coral reefs are formed by
(a) volcanic rocks
(b) marine sediments
(c) chlorine material precipitated from seawater
(d) tiny colonial marine animals which construct limestone skeleton material
ANSWER (D)

19.Which one of the following is correct ?
Benguela current flows
(a) along Brazilian coast
(b) off Southwest African coast
(c) off Spanish and North African coast
(d) along West coast of United States
ANSWER (B)

20. Consider the following countries :
1. Algeria
2. Morocco
3. Mauritania
Which of these border(s) the Mediterranean
Sea?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER (B)

Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA

Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA
Geography Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper for general awareness in UPSC IES

1.In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum ?
(a) During autumn
(b) After summer
(d) During winter
(d) During monsoon
ANSWER (B)

2.Tropical evergreen forests remain evergreen because :
(a) there is a thick undergrowth of bushes
(b) they do not shed their leaves
(c) shedding of leaves and simultaneous growth of new ones takes place
throughout the year
(d) while plants at one level shed their leaves, those at a higher level retain their
leaves
ANSWER (C)

3.Which of the following deserts does not lie in the Northern Hemisphere ?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Thar
ANSWER (B)

4.The hottest place in the world is 1
(a) Tehran, Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, india
(c) Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia, Libya


ANSWER (D)

5.Deserts such as Sahara are generally found between 20° and 30° latitudes in western
parts of the continents. This is because these regions :
(a) are very hot throughout the year
(b) have offshore winds throughout the year
(c) have warm offshore currents i
(d) lie in the belt of the doldrums
ANSWER (B)

6.Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Steppes are the temperate grasslands of South America
(b) Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America
(c) Pampas are the temperate grasslands of South Australia
(d) Forests with trees which do not shed their leaves seasonally are called deciduous
forests
ANSWER (B)
7. Coniferous forests are in the region of :
(a) high humidity and high temperature
(b) low rainfall and very low temperature throughout the year
(c) low mean annual temperature throughout the year and very cold winter
(d) heavy rainfall and high temperature during summer
ANSWER (B)

8.Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as :
(a) Dry deciduous
(b) Dry evergreen
(c) Tropical moist deciduous
(d) Tropical moist evergreen
ANSWER (C)

9.Which of the following regions bear mainly the Coniferous forests ?
(a) Southern part of India
(b) South America
(c) Southern island of New Zealand
(d) Central, Eastern and Western parts of North America
ANSWER (D)

10.Many Savanna regions are unable to support good crops because:
(a) They have large tall grasses which form a canopy over the good crops and do not
allow them to grow
(b) There are large numbers of animals in this region, which eat up the crops
(c) The climate is too hot for the crops to grow
(d)they have poor lateritic soil

ANSWER (A)
11. Wine production is mainly carried out in Which of the following natural regions?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Savanna
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Coniferous forests
ANSWER (C)

12. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct '?
(a) Coniferous forests of high latitudes yield soft wood
(b) Between 2000 m and 3000 m elevation on the Himalayas grow, deodar, chinar
and walnut ,
(c) Forests in equatorial regions of India are less dense than the monsoon forests
(d) Large-scale exploitation of forests has caused soil erosion and repeated floods
ANSWER (C)

13. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
safari ?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial regions
(c) Temperate Grassland regions
(d) Savanna or Tropical Grassland regions
ANSWER (D)

14. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) desert and savanna regions
ANSWER (B)

15. Which climatic region has the least temperature range ?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Tropical region
(d) Mediterranean region '
ANSWER (A)

16. The Veld grassland of South Africa experiences:
(a) the Continental Savanna Climate
(b) the Maritime Savanna Climate
(c) the Steppe climate
(d) the Tropical desert climate
ANSWER (C)

17. The Taiga belt lies between:
(a) Mediterranean climate and Tundra
(b) Monsoon climate and Tundra
(c) Temperate grasslands and Tundra
(d) Tibet type climate and Tundra
ANSWER (C)
18. The Tropical Rain forest type of climate is characterized by
(a) average rainfall of about 300 cm
(b) heavy rain and high temperatures throughout the year
(c) hot dry summer and mild wet winters
(d) hot summer and cool winters with about 100 cm of annual rainfall
ANSWER (B)

19.Factory farming is the characteristic of
(a) north-western North America
(b) north-western Europe
(c) eastern Europe
(d) south-east Asia
ANSWER (B)

20. The zones of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year
correspond to ?
(a) Alpine meadows
(b) Antarctica
(c) Arctic deserts
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (D)

Solved model paper ONGC Class-I Executive Graduate-Trainee Jobs

Solved model paper ONGC Class-I Executive Graduate-Trainee Jobs
Electronics Model Questions For ONGC Graduate Trainees
Free online practice paper ongcindia.com ONGC Recruitment Graduate Trainee

1. The field winding of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited directly. If a 3-phase balanced voltage is impressed across the stator terminals, then the rotor will
(a) Rotate at. Synchronous speed
(b) Rotate at a speed slightly less than synchronous speed
(c) Rotate at a speed very near to half the synchronous speed
(d) Not rotate at all

Ans:-A

2. The positive, negative and zero sequence currents of a star connected load for phase R are given as
IR1 = (l0-j7) A
IR2 = (5+j15) A
JR9 = (5 —j8) A
The neutral current will be
(a) Zero
(b) (15 + j 24)
(c) (-15- j 24) A
(d) (15 – j 24) A

Ans:-A

3. In a synchronous machine, the electric circuits are armature circuit, field circuit and damper circuit and X d is d-axis synchronous reactance; X d is d-axis transient synchronous reactance and X’ is d-axis sub-transient synchronous reactance. If there is no damper winding, then
(a) X’d = X” d
(b) X’’ d = X d
(c) X’d = X d
(d) X d = X’d = X’d

Ans:-A
4. For a given load, the speed of shaded-pole single- phase induction motor fluctuates slightly because
(a) The speed of the magnetic field is not constant
(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field is not constant
(c) The motor operates at higher value of slips
(d) The motor is used with fluctuating load

Ans:-B


5. Two separate induction motors having 6 poles and 4 poles are cascaded 3-phase, 400 V, 60 Hz is the supply to the motors. The synchronous speeds (in rpm) of cascaded set will be
(a) 720, 1200, 1800 and 2400
(b) 600, 1000, 1500 and 3000
(c) 720, 1200, 1800 and 3600
(d) 600, 1200, 1800 and 2400

Ans:-C

6. A separately excited dc motor is fed from a phase- controlled converter. The motor exhibits poor speed regulation. This is due to the
(a) Inductive voltage drop of the converter and possible discontintious conduction
(b) Harmonics in the armature current
(c) Large inductance of the load current
(d) Poor power factor of the converter

Ans:-A

7. A drive suitable for low-speed high-power reversible application is the
(a) Synchro converter-fed ac drive
(b) Current source inverter-fed ac drive
(c) Voltage source (square wave) inverter-fed drive
(d) Induction motor fed from ac voltage supply

Ans:-C


8. The advantage of dual converter in the circulatory current mode is
(a) The low loss in the converter
(b) That it permits dynamic braking of connected motor
(c) The lower cost of the equipment
(d) Faster response

Ans:-D


9. A six-pulse non-reversible thyritorised 415 V ac converter is controlling a 440 V dc motor. If total drop in the circuit is limited to 10%, then the converter must be locked at an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 600
(c) 450
(d) 900

Ans:-D

10. Which one of the following statements is correct in connection with Inverters?
(a) Both voltage source inverter and current source inverter require feedback diodes
(b) The current source inverter requires feedback diodes
(c) GTO’s can be used only in the current source inverters
(d) The voltage source inverter requires feedback diodes

Ans:-A

11. Consider a dc to dc converter (chopper) having a load resistance of 10 .0 and an Input voltage of 232 V. If the voltage drop across the converter during ON time is 2 V and the frequency of operation is1 kHz at a duty cycle of 0.4, then the average output voltage of the converter will be
(a) 94.0 V
(b) 92.8 V
(c) 92.0 V
(d) 90.8 V

Ans:-C


12. Match List I (device of thyristor family) with List II (characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
A. Asymmetrical thyristor
B. Amplifying gate thyristor
C. Triac
D. GTO
List II
1. Poor turn-off gain
2. Good di / dt capability
3. Poor reverse blocking capability
4. Good turn-off
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 2 1 3

Ans:-B

13. The dv/dt protection of an SCR is achieved by using
(a) RL circuit in series with SCR
(b) RC circuit across SCR
(c) L in series with SCR
(d) RC circuit in series with SCR

Ans:-B
14. Nominal-II model is normally used for evaluating the performance of
(a) Short line
(b) Medium line
(c) Long line
(d) Infinite line

Ans:-C

15. The A, B, C constants of a nominal T-circuit are given as
A = 0.95 / 0.5°
B = 85 / 70° ohm
C = 0.0005 / 90° ohm
If the two terminal voltages are held constants at 66 kV, then the steady-slate stability limit of the line will be
(a) 0.3312 MW
(b) 3.312 MW
(c) 33.12 MW
(d) 331.2 MW

Ans:-C
16. A feeder with reactance of 0.2p.u has a sending- end voltage of 1.2 p. u . If the reactive power supplied at the receiving end of the feeder is 0.3 p. u , the approximate voltage drop in the feeder will be
(a) 0.042 p. u.
(b) 0.052 p.u.
(c) 0.060 p.u.
(d) 0.070 p.u.

Ans:-B


17. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system network?
(a) Bus incidence matrix
(b) Primitive impedance matrix
(c) Primitive admittance matrix
(d) Bus impedance matrix

Ans:-C

18. A fault occurring on an end-supplied transmission line is more severe from the point of view of RRRV if it is a
(a) Long line fault
(b) Short line fault
(c) Medium line fault
(d) Generator fault

Ans:-D

19. The insulation strength of EHV lines is mainly governed by
(a) Switching overvoltages
(b) Lightning overvoltages
(c) Power frequency overvoltages
(d) Dynamic overvoltages

Ans:-A


20. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) Zero

Ans:-A


21. Which one of the following types of linear couplers is used for extremely reliable high-speed bus protection?
(a) Mutual inductors wound on non-magneic torodial cores
(b) Mutual inductors wound on magnetic torodial cores
(c) Capacitor voltage transformers
(d) Wire-wound resistors

Ans:-C
22. A relay most likely to operate undesirably on power swings is the
(a) Over-current relay
(b) Inverse definite minimum time relay
(c) Mho relay
(d) Reactance relay

Ans:-C

23. The inductance and capacitance of a line are respectively 1.0 H and 0.01 pF. If the
Instantaneous value of interrupted current is 10 A, the voltage across the breaker contacts will be
(a) 125kV
(b) 100kV
(c) 75 kV
(d) 66 kV

Ans:-B

24. Which of the following reason make HRC fuses preferable in power circuits?
1. They have inverse time characteristics.
2. They are consistent in performance
3. They can be selected for proper discrimination.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:-C


25. For a 12-pulse operation of HVDC converters, the most troublesome set of harmonics on the ac side is
(a) 23rd and 25 th
(b) 12th and 24th
(c) ll th and l3th
(d) 5th and 7th

Ans:-D

electrical engineering objective questions

electrical engineering objective questions
Electrical Engineering Questions and Answers
multiple choice questions in electrical engineering

1. A shunt motor is running at its rated speed on rated load. If the field circuit gets suddenly opened
(a) Torque developed by the motor will be almost zero and the motor will stop without causing any damage to the motor
(b) The motor will draw very high armature current but it will continue to drive the load at a reduced speed.
(c) The motor would tend to race to a high speed while driving the load
(d) The motor would draw very high armature current and will stall with consequent damage to the armature

Ans:-B
2. A single-phase alternator has a synchronous reactance of 2 ohms and negligible resistance. If it supplies 10 A to a purely capacitive load at 200 V, then the generated emf will be.
(a) 240 volts
(b) 220 volts
(c) 200 volts
(d) 180 volts

Ans:-D
3. Suppose a synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus it supplying electrical power at unity PF to the bus. If its field current is now increased
(a) Both the active and reactive power output of the generator will remain unchanged
(b) The active power supplied will remain unchanged but the machine will also supply lagging reactive power
(c) The active power supplied will increase and the machine will draw leading reactive power
(d) The active power supplied will decrease and the machine will supply leading reactive power

Ans:-B



4. In the phasor-diagram of a round-rotor synchronous generator, the volt age equations is E f = V t + I e ( r a + j X a ), where E f = excitation voltage, V t = terminal voltage, Ie = armature current at lagging power factor, r a = armature resistance; Xs= synchronous reactance. While remaining synchronized to the bus-bars (infinite bus), f the power input from the prime mover is gradually decreased and finally stopped, it will result in
(a) Reversal of ‘I a’ and E lagging V t
(b) Reversal of I a but E f leading V t
(c) The sign of I a remaining unchanged, but E f leading V t
(d) The sign of I a remaining unchanged, but E f lagging V t

Ans:-C

5. A 3-phase Induction motor has a full-load slip of 3 per cent at normal voltage. Which one of the following will be the value of the slip of the motor if ft develops the same torque theoretically while operating at 110 per cent of its normal voltage?
(a) 2.48%
(b) 0.248%
(c) 0.483%
(d) 4.83%

Ans:-A


6. A 6-pole, 3-phase, 60 Hz Induction motor runs at 1000 rpm developing maximum torque. Rotor resistance per phase is 1.2 ohms. Neglecting stator impedance, then for developing maximum torque, the external resistance to be connected in series with each rotor phase will be
(a) 7.2 ohms
(b) 6 ohms
(c) 1.44 ohms
(d) 1.2 ohms

Ans:-A


7. The capacitor-start single-phase Induction motors develop much larger starting torque in comparison with the “split-phase” motors, because the use of capacitors in the auxiliary winding enables
(a) Provision of larger number of turns in the auxiliary winding
(b) A larger starting current to be drawn from the supply
(c) The torque-slip characteristic in general to get a shape to give a large starting torque
(d) The current division between the main and auxiliary windings to be conducive for the development of large starting torque

Ans:-D
8. If the load of a synchronous motor is increases while keeping the field excitation constant, then
(a) Power factor will increase and power angle will decrease
(b) Power factor will decrease and power angle will increase
(c) Both power factor and power angle will increase
(d) Both power factor and power angle will decrease

Ans:-C


9. A synchronous motor operates as a synchronous condenser when it is
(a) Operated at unity power factor
(b) under-excited
(c) Over-excited
(d) Connected in parallel with condensers

Ans:-C


10. An equipment has 0.8 per unit impedance on a base of 66KV, 100 MVA. It’s per unit impedances on a base of 33 KV, 100 MVA will be
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.6
(d) 3.2

Ans:-A


11. In a 3-phase power transformer, 5-limbed construction is adopted to
(a) Suppress the 5th and 7th harmonics
(b) Suppress the 3rd and its multiple harmonics
(c) Suppress all the orders of harmonics
(d) Increase the capacity of the transformer

Ans:-A

12. A transformer has a resistance of 2% and reactance of 4%. Its regulations at 0.8 power factor lagging a leading respectively are
(a) 4 per cent and — 0.8 per cent
(b) —4 per cent and 0.8 per cent
(c) — 0.8 per cent and 4 per cent
(d) 0.8 per cent and —4 per cent

Ans:-A

13. Consider the following statements:
The use of Delta-connected tertiary windings in star-star connected power transformers
1. Makes available supply for single-phase loads.
2. Suppresses harmonic voltages.
3. Allows flow of earth fault current for operation of protective devices
4. Provides low-reactance paths for zeros sequence currents.
Of the statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Ans:-D


14. If dv / dt occurring across a thyristor exceeds its permissible value, then the thyristor will
(a) Remain in the forward blocking state without any damage
(b) Turn on only to get damaged
(c) Turn on but whether it gets damaged or not will depend on the final follow up current
(d) Not turn on but get damaged

Ans:-C



15. In a dc machine, the armature mmf is
(a) Rectangular and directed along the inter- polar axis
(b) Triangular and directed along the inter-polar axis
(c) Triangular and directed along the brush axis
(d) Rectangular and directed along the brush axis

Ans:-C


16. The average load current of a dc chopper feeding a pure resistive load is I amps. If a variable inductance connected in the load circuit Is progressively increased from zero value, keeping the duty ratio unchanged, then the average load current will
(a) Increase starting from 1
(b) Decrease with a starting value of 1
(c) Remain the same at 1
(d) Increase to some highest value of current and then decrease again to 1

Ans:-D

17. Consider the following statements:
The source inductance of an ac to dc line commutated phase controlled converter
1. limits dv / dt capability of thyristors.
2. Causes a voltage drop in the de terminal voltage.
3. Improves the line side power factor.
4. limits the range of firing angles.
5. reduces the line side power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 5 are correct
(d) 2, 4 and 5 are correct

Ans:-B




18. When starting a differentially connected compound motor, it Is desirable to short-circuit the series field winding to
(a) Avoid very high starting time
(b) Avoid excessive starting speed
(c) Prevent the motor from starting in the reverse direction
(d) Avoid heavy in-rush of current

Ans:-B

19. A single-phase voltage controller is employed for controlling the power flow from 206 V, 50 Hz source into a load consisting of R = 5 Ω and ω L = 12 Ω The value of maximum mis load current and the firing angle are respectively
(a) 260 / 10.9 A and 00
(b) 20 A and 0°
(c) 20 A and 90°
(d) 260 / 10.9 A and 90°

Ans:-C

20. The number of thyristors required for single- phase to single-phase cycloconverter of the midpoint and for three-phase to three-phase 3-pulse type of cycloconverter are respectively
(a) 4and6
(b) 4and4
(c) 4andl8
(d) None of the above

Ans:-C

Objective Electrical Engineering For SAIL MTT Jobs

Objective Electrical Engineering For SAIL MTT Jobs
Solved electrical engineering Exam Questions FOR SAIL
Practice paper for SAIL Management Trainee vacancy



1. When bundle conductors are used in place of single conductors, the effective inductance and capacitance will respectively
(a) Increase and decrease
(b) Decrease and increase
(c) Decrease and remain unaffected
(d) remain unaffected and increase

Ans:-B


2. A balanced 3-phase, 3-wire supply feeds balanced star connected resistors. If one of the resistors is disconnected, then the percentage reduction in load will be
(a) 33(1/3)
(b) 50
(c) 66(2/3)
(d) 75

Ans:-A


3. A long overhead transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance. Under this operating condition, the ratio of the voltage to the current at dfferen1pñnts along the line will
(a) Progressively increase from the sending-end to the receiving-end
(b) Progressively increase from the receiving- end to the sending-end
(c) remain the same at the two ends, but be higher between the two ends being maximum at the centre of the line
(d) Remain the same at all points

Ans:-D


4. For a transmission line with negligible losses, the lagging reactive power (VAR) delivered at the receiving-end, for a given receiving-end voltage, is directly proportional to the
(a) Square of the line voltage drop
(b) Line voltage drop
(c) Line inductive reactance
(d) Line capacitive reactance

Ans:-B





5. Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission line is provided to protect the line against
(a) Lightning surges
(b) Switching surges
(c) Excessive fault voltages
(d) Corona effect

Ans:-A



6. Consider the following statements about distance relays
1. The effect of an arc may cause the relay to under reach.
2. The effect of an intermediate current source may cause the relay to overreach.
3. The effect of an intermediate load may cause the relay to under reach.
4. The presence of dc offset in the fault current may cause the relay to over- reach.
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 1. 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Ans:-C





Directions: The following 13 items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide f the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these Items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

7. Assertion (A): Whenever a synchro pair is used as an error detector, a two-phase ac motor may be used as an actuator.
Reason (R) : the synchro pair produces an error voltage which is suppressed carrier modulated and a two-phase ac motor could demodulate this.

Ans:-C


8. Assertion (A): The input impedance of a loss- less transmission line can have two limiting values, zero and infinity.
Reason (R) : These limiting values will depend upon whether the transmission line is open or shorted at the load end and whether the length of the line is an integral multiple of λ/4 where λ is the wavelength within the transmission line.

Ans:-A


9. Assertion (A) : In order to produce a light spot at the point at which the electron am strikes the CR0 screen, the inner surface of the screen is coated with a phosphor.
Reason (R) : The phosphor absorbs the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons and reemits energy at a higher frequency

Ans:-B


10. Assertion (A) : Frequency modulation systems are more widely used than amplitude modulation systems.
Reason (R): Frequency modulation systems have less noise than amplitude modulation systems.

Ans:-C



11. Assertion (A): Low resistances are not measured by Wheatstone bridge arrangements.
Reason (R) : The effects of contact and lead resistances detrimental to low resistance measurements, are present in large amounts in Wheatstone bridge method.

Ans:-A


12. Assertion (A): Multistage dc amplifiers are invariably based on two-transistor differential amplifiers.
Reason (R): Two-transistor differential amplifiers have high gain and high CMRR.

Ans:-A


13. Assertion (A): DC shunt motors are usually fitted with interpoles.
Reason (R) : Interpoles increases the starting torque of dc shunt motors.

Ans:-C


14. Assertion (A): In a level compounded dc generator, the terminal voltage at full load is equal to the terminal voltage at no-load.
Reason (R): Under load conditions, the armature reaction increases the flux per pole and thus helps maintain a constant terminal voltage.

Ans:-A


15. Assertion (A): DC series motors are known to be capable of operating on ac supply as well. With a very minor modification, dc shunt motors can work on ac supply as well.
Reason (R): the direction of torque developed in a rotating machine remains unaltered if the directions of conductor current and air-gap flux are reversed simultaneously.

Ans:-C


16. Assertion (A): In the experimental determination of synchronous impedance of an ac generator, it is possible to take one set of data only from short- circuit test, and obtain there from the short circuit characteristic of the machine as a straight line passing through the origin of the plot.
Reason (R): During the short-circuit test, the magnetic circuit of an alternator; remains unsaturated even when the field excitation is high.

Ans:-B

17. Assertion (A): Under normal operating conditions, major portion of iron losses of an induction motor occurs in the stator.
Reason (R): The frequency of the rotor currents under normal operating conditions is very small.

Ans:-A

18. Assertion (A) Solid state regulators are finding favour in speed control of domestic fans, over conventional resistance and inductance type regulators.
Reason (R): Solid state regulators are compact, relatively less expensive, energy efficient, more reliable and afford noise-free operation.

Ans:-A

19. Assertion (A): The conductors are usually transposed in transmission lines.
Reason (R): The resistance of each phase has to be equal.

Ans:-C


20. For the network function
Z(s) = 2 (s2 + 1)(s2 + 9) / s(s2+4)
the value of the series capacitance in Foster Form I is
(a) 1/9 F
(b) 3/9 F
(c) 2/9 F
(d) 4/9 F

Ans:-C





21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I
(Time functions)
A. e-2(t-2)
B. d (t2) / dt
C. t /2

List II
(Laplace transforms)
1. 2 / s2
2. 1 / s+2 e-2s
3. 1 / 2s2
4. 1 / 2s
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 3 1 4

Ans:-A


22. When a constant voltage source V is connected to a series R-L circuit with zero initial stored energy in the inductor, the instantaneous value of power supplied to the inductor I is given by
(a) V2/R (e –Rl/L — e-2Rt/L)
(b) V2/R (1 — e-Rt/L)
(c) V2/R e-Rt/L
(d) V2/R(1 + e-Rt/L)

Ans:-B


23. Consider the following statements
In a series RLC resonant circuit, the bandwidth is
1. Directly proportional to resonant frequency
2. Inversely proportional to resonant frequency
3. Directly proportional to quality factor
4. Inversely proportional to quality factor
Of these statements:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct

Ans:-D





24. The instantaneous power taken by a balanced three-phase load supplied from a balanced three- phase source it
(a) Zero
(b) A constant
(c) A pulsating function with a non-zero average
(d) Alternating with a zero average

Ans:-B


25. The power in a 3-phase 3-wire load Is measured using two 100 W full-scale wattmeters W1 and W7 WI is of accuracy class ±1% and reads 100 W. W2 is of accuracy class ±0.5% and reads —50 W. Then the uncertainty In the computation of total power it
(a) ± 1.5%
(b) ± 0.5%
(c) ±4%
(d) ±3%

Ans:-D

Online PDF Mechanical Engineering paper 2010

Online PDF Mechanical Engineering paper 2010
Free Download previous Question paper
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Transducrs MCQ Questions

Transducrs MCQ Questions
1. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)

2. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)

3. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)

4. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)

5. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)

6. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ∆ρ
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)

7. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)

8. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)

9. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)



10. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)

11. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)

12. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)

13. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)

14. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)

15. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)

16. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)

17. ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)

18. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)

19. Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)

20. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)

21. Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)

22. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)

23. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)

24. Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)

25. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)

26. One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)

27. The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)

28. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)

29. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)

30. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)


31. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)