Current GK General Knowledge for IES 2009

1. What is the budget of Manned Space mission of ISRO?

a 8500 Crore Rs

b 12400 Crore Rs

c 15000 Crore Rs

d 17350 Crore Rs

ANS B




2. Who is the Deputy Chairman of planning Commission?

a Montek Singh Ahluwalia

b Manmohan Singh

c P Chidambram

d Rajshekhra Reddy

ANS A





3.Who is the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre?

a A K Antony

b P C Ghadai

c G S Gupta

d K Radhakrishna

ANS D




What is the name of British Foreign Secretary who toured India in Jan 2009?

a O Sullevan

b David Miliband

c Warren Buffet

d Joseph Hewes


ANS B





4. Recently a motion was Submitted to Chairman Rajya Sabha Hamid Ansari .The motion was Filed under Article 217(1-b) and article 124 (4).These two articles have provision regarding



a Removal of high Court Judge

b Delimitation of constituencies

c More power for Rajya Sabha

d Allocation of Assets to states

ANS A





5.On 3rd Feb 2009 India Signed a Pact for Co-operation in production and marketing of Biofuels in a sustainable and environmental Friendly manner with



a Italy

b Singapore

c US

d Britain


ANS C


6.India’s Biggest Solar Energy Plant is Coming up in

a Asansol West Bengal

b Ujjain MP

c Vapi Gujrat

d Jaislmer Rajasthan


ANS A


7.According to UNICEF Report State of World’s Children 2009, India’s Maternal Mortality Rate MMR Stands at (per 1, 00,000 Live Births)

a 540

b 450

c 730

d 1019


ANS B

8.According to Forest Survey of India Report 2007 what percentage of India’s territory is covered under Forests?

a 23

b 33

c 36

d 39.5

ANS A


9.Environment ministry has recently proposed a Central Scheme of Rs 890 Core to Have ‘rich forest ‘ in each panchayat by 2012 .The scheme is known as

a Gram van Yojna

b Panchayat Jungle Yojna

c Vriksh lagao Yojna

d Van panchayat Yojna


ANS D
10. 12th India international Security Expo was held in Feb 2009 at

a Kolkata

b Mumbai

c Delhi

d Chennai

ANS C


11.Admiral Gorshkov an Aircraft carrier from Russia is being acquired by Indian Navy

What is the new name of The carrier

a INS Virat

b INS Sanhar

c INS Jal Shakti

d INS Vikramaditya

ANS D



12. In Feb 2009 parliament of which nation Voted to Shut a US airbase?

a Kyrgyzstan

b Uganda

c Saudi Arabia

d Iran


ANS A

13 Who is The President of Sri Lanka ?

a Ranil Wickremesinghe

b SB Dissanayke

c Rajapaksha

d None of the above


ANS C

14 Who is the New Prime Minister of Zimbabwe?

a Morgan Tsvangirai

b Robert Mugabe

c Thokozani khupe

d Tendai Biti

ANS A


15 Hugo Chavez is President of which Country?

a Nigeria

b Ausrtia

c Finland

d Venezuela


ANS D
16 Swat Valley which was recently in News is Situated in?

a Pakistan

b Iran

c Afganistan

d Russia

ANS A


17 Recently Which neighboring Country of India Witnessed mutiny in an Armed force?

a Sri lanka

b Bangla Desh

c Pakistan

d Nepal

ANS B


18 In Feb 2009 which Indian State signed a Memorandum of Understanding MOU with International Co-operative Alliance ICA



a Haryana

b Punjab

c Tamil nadu

d Gujrat

ANS B


19 Who will be the Indian Ambassador to US from April 2009

a Ronen Sen

b Sudhir Vyas

c Meera Shankar

d Sharat Sabharwal

ANS C


20 Who will be the Next Indian Ambassador In Germany

a Ronen Sen

b Sudhir Vyas

c Meera Shankar

d Sharat Sabharwal

ANS B

Online Free Preperation Questions for IES 2009 GA

These Questions are useful for preperation for GA for IES 2009

1 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick

2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only

3. Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857? ‘
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
6 . Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
7. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Movementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
9. In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
10. At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
11. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
12. Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

13 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaties, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America’
(c) West America (d) South America
14 . What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist leader of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
15. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
16. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China’
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
17. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

19 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

21 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu

22. Itaipu Dam built art the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
23. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the’ Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (p) 3 only
24. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth’s water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the stateinentsgiven above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d)Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
27 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
28 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba

29 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra’ Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block

30 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodiumcarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2

31 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do ‘little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

32 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
33 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
34 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry

35 . Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
36 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph’e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the’ following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey

39 Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain

40 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
42 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘e-chaupals’?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
43 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.

44 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India’s Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
45 . Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
46 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
47 . Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
48 . Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
49 .Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia

50 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

51 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only- (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

52 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
53 Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
56. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
57. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
58. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
60. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi

Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They’ are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder’s hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
61. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
62. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
63. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
64. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
65. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
66
On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
67.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
68.
A big rectangular pIot. of area 4320 m Square is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m

69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury

70 Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
71 . 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. ”
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
73. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
74.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
75. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader’s Digest Indian Express publication group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

76. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise lndustrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
77. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
78. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and C never sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above

79 Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
80. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass’ - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
81. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How.many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
82. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
83. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
84. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
85. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its
one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. Whatis the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
86. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
87. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
88. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
89. Match items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List - I (Location) List - 1I (Known For/1n News for)
A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run
B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit
C. Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant
D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
90. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna

92. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
93. Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
95. Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan’ disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3

96 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

97 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population ‘2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98 . Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville

99 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
100 . Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Check the answers at original site at http://zigg.in/gk/?p=22

Free Online Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007

Free Online Objective Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007
These questions appeared in IES 2007.This is totally free objective test.To download select the text and save in Word or Text.
1. Which one of the following metal forming processes is not a high energy rate
forming process ?
(a) Electro-magnetic forming (b) Roll-forming
(c) Explosive forming (d) Electro-hydraulic forming

2. What are the advantages of powder metallurgy ?
1. Extreme purity product
2. Low labour cost.
3. Low equipment cost.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists:
List I (Casting Process)
A. Die casting
B. Investment casting
C. Shell moulding
D. Centrifugal casting
Code:

List II (Principle)
1. The metal solidifies in a rotating mould
2. The pattern cluster is repeatedly dipped into a ceramic slurry and dusted with refractory
3. Molten metal is forced by pressure into a metallic mould
4. After cooling the invest is removed from the casting by pressure jetting or vibratory cleaning

A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4


4. Consider the following statements in respect of investment castings:
1. The pattern or patterns is/are not joined to a stalk or sprue also of wax to form a tree of patterns.
2.
The prepared moulds are placed in an oven and heated gently to dry off the invest and melt out the bulk of wax.
3.
The moulds are usually poured by placing the moulds in a vacuum chamber.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


5 Which of the following are employed in shell moulding ?
1. Resin binder
2. Metal pattern
3. Heating coils
5 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

6. Wh ich one of the following is the correct statement ?
In a centrifugal casting method
(a) no core is used (b) core may be made of any metal
(c) core is made of sand (d) core is made of ferrous metal

7. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
Gate is provided in moulds to
(a) feed the casting at a constant rate
(b) give passage to gases
(c) compensate for shrinkage
(d) avoid cavities

8. Consider the following statements in respect of oxy-acetylene welding:
1. The joint is not heated to a state of fusion.
2. No pressure is used.
3. Oxygen is stored in steel cylinder at a pressure of 14 MPa.
4. When there is an excess of acetylene used, there is a decided change in the appearance of flame.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

9. The coating material of an arc welding electrode contains which of the following
1. Deoxidising agent
2. Arc stabilizing agent
3. Slag forming agent
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

10. In MIG welding, the metal is transferred into the form of which one of the following ?
(a) A fine spray of metal (b) Molten drops
(c) Weld pool {d) Molecules

Consider the following statements in respect of the laser beam welding:
1. It can be used for welding any metal or their combinations because of very high temperature of the focal points.
2. Heat affected zone is very large because of quick heating.
3. High vacuum is required to carry the process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following effects are possible due to residual stresses in welding ?
1. Reduce dimensional stability.
2. Weld cracking.
3. Effect on fatigue strength.
4. Reduction in the creep strength.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) land 3 only id) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. During machining, excess metal is removed in the form of chip as in the case of
turning on a lathe. Which of the following are correct ?
Continuous ribbon like chip is formed when turning
1. at a higher cutting speed
2. at a lower cutting speed
3. a brittle material
4. a ductile material

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 3 (b) l and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4


13. Screw threads are produced on solid rods by using which of the following ?
(a) Dies (b) Punch
(c) Mandrel (d) Boring bar

14. What is the process ofremoving metal by a milling cutter which is rotated against
the direction of travel of the work piece, called ?
(a) Down milling (b) Up milling
(c) End milling (b) Face milling


15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List I List II
(Long Column)
A. Both ends hinged
B. One end fixed and other
end free
C. Both ends fixed
D. One end fixed, and other
hinged
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

16. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of packing density for
the given crystal structures of metals ?
(a) Simple cubic - Face centred cubic - Body centred cubic
(b) Body centred cubic - Simple cubic ~ Face centred cubic
(c) Simple cubic - Body centred cubic - Face centred cubic
(d) Body centred cubic — Face centred cubic - Simple cubic

17. Vibration damping in machinery is best achieved by means of base structures
made of which one of the following materials ?
(a) Low carbon steel (6) Nodular iron
(c) Grey cast iron (d) White cast iron


18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I List II
(Component) (Required Property)
A. Blades of bulldozer 1. High wear resistance and high toughness
B. Gas turbine blades 2. Low Young's modulus and high fatigue
strength
C. Drill bit 3. High wear and abrasion
D. Springs of automobiles 4. High creep strength and good corrosion
resistance

Code:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4

19. What is the movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic planes and
directions, termed as ?
(a) Glide (b) Twinning
(c) Slip (d)Jog

20. Which one of the following is the correct statement f
Pearlite in iron-carbon system is a
(a) phase consisting of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (6) Mechanical mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (c) eutectic mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature {d) All the above three are correct

21. Which of the following factors influence hardness in a plain carbon steel ?
1. Percentage carbon
2. Quenching media
3. Work size
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists.
List I List II
(Material) (Application)
A. Fibre reinforce plastics 1. Automobile tyres
B. Acryli les 2. Aircraft
C. Phenolics 3. Lenses
D. Butadiene rubber 4. Electric switch cover
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

23. Which one of the following is the most effective strengthening mechanism of non-
ferrous metal ?
(a) Solid solution hardening (b) Strain hardening
(c) Grain size refinement (d) Precipitation hardening

24. Wood is natural composite consisting of which of the following ?
(a) Lignin fibers in collagen matrix
(b) Lignin fibers in apatite matrix
(c) Cellulose fibres in apatite matrix
(d) Cellulose fibres in lignin matrix

25. Which one of the following is not a ceramic ?
(a) Alumina (b) Porcelain
(c) Whisker (d) Pyrosil

26. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has which one of the following compositions ?
(a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V (b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
(c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V (d) 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V

27. Which one of the following elements alloys exhibits season cracking ?
(a) Iron (6) Brass
(c) Aluminium (d) Steel


28. Which metal forming process is used for manufacture of long steel wire ?
(a) Deep drawing (b) Forging
(c) Drawing (d) Extrusion

29. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(a) Extrusion is used for the manufacture of seamless tubes
(b) Extrusion is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the work
(c) Extrusion is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses on its surface
(d) Extrusion comprises pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired from the finished part

30. Interference between the teeth of two meshing involute gears can be reduced oreliminated by
1. Increasing the addendum of the gear teeth and correspondingly reducing the addendum of the pinion.
2. reducing the pressure angle of the teeth of the meshing gears
3. increasing the centre distance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

31. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In meshing gears with involute gear teeth, the correct begins at the intersection of the
(a) line of action and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(b) line of action and the pitch circle of the driven gear
(c) dedendum circle of the driver gear and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(d) addendum circle of the driver gear and the pitch circle of the driven gear

32. The turning moment diagram for a single cylinder double acting steam engine
consists of+ve and -ve loops above the below the average torque line. For the +ve
loop, the ratio of the speeds of the flywheel at the beginning and the end is which
one of the following
(a) Less than unity (b) Equal to unity
(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero

33. In a slider-bar mechanism, when does the connecting rod have zero angular ve
locity ?
(a) When crank angle = 0° (b) When crank angle = 90°
(c) When crank angle = 45° (d) Never


34. Consider the following follower motions in respect of a given lift, speed of rotation
and angle of stroke of a cam:
1. Cycloidal motion.
2. Simple harmonic motion.
3. Uniform velocity motion.


35. In order for a transportation matrix which has six rows and four columns not to
be degenerate, how much must be the number of allocated cells in the matrix ?
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 24


36. Which one of the following causes the whirling of shafts ?
(a) Non-homogeneity of shaft material
(b) Misalignment of bearings
(c) Fluctuation of speed
(d) Internal damping

37. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In the standard form of a linear programming problem, all constraints are (a) of less than or equal to, type (b) of greater than or equal to , type
(c) in the form of equations
(d) some constraints are of less than equal to, type and some of greater than equal to, type

38. Ifm is the number of constraints in a linear programming with two variables x
and y and non-negativity constraints x>0,y>0; the feasible region in the graphi
cal solution will be surrounded by how many lines ?
(a) m (b) m + 1
(c) m + 2 (d) m + 4

39. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of acceptance sampling ?
(a) This is widely suitable in mass production (b) It causes less fatigue to inspectors
(c) This is muen economical
(d) It gives definite assurance for the conformation of the specifications for all the pieces

40. Which one of the following subroutines does a computer implementation of the
simplex routine require ?
(a) Finding a root of a polynomial
(b) Solving a system of linear equations
(c) Finding the determinant of a matrix
(d) Finding the eigenvalue of a matrix

41, Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below Lists:
List I List II
(Application) (Joint)

A. Boiler Shell 1, Cotter Joint
B. Marine Shaft Coupling 2. Knuckle Joint
C. Crosshead and Piston Rod 3. Riveted joint
D. Automobile gear box 4. Splines
(gears to shaft) 5. Bolted Joint
Code :
A B C D
(.a) 1 4 2 5
(b) 3 5 1 4
(c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 3 4 1 5


42. How can shock absorbing capacity of a bell be increased ?
(a) By tightening it properly
(6) By increasing the shank diameter
(c)By grinding the shank
(d)By making the shank diameter equal to the core diameter of thread

43. How is the type of a railway wheel fitted ?
(a) By seam welding (6) By fillet welding
(c) By interference fit (d) None of the above

44. Consider the following statements in case of belt drives:
1. Centrifugal tension in the belt increases the transmitted power.
2. Centrifugal tension does not affect the driving tension.
3. Maximum tension in the belt is always three times the centrifugal tension. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

45.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Worm gear 1. Imposes no thrust load on the shaft
B. Spur gear 2. To transmit power between two non-inter-
secting shafts which are perpendicular
C. Herringbone 3. lb transmitpower when the shafts are parallel
D. Spiral level gear 4. To transmit power when the shafts are at
right angles to one another
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

46. The velocity ratio between pinion and gear in a gear drive is 2-3, the module of
teeth is 2-0 mm and sum of number of teeth on pinion and gear is 99. What is the
centre distance between pinion and the gear ?
(a) 49. 5 mm (6) 99 mm
(c) 148.5 mm (d) 198 mm

47. Compared tc years with 20°pressure angle involute full depth teeth, those with 20°pressure angle and stub teeth have
1. smaller addendum.
2. smaller dedendum.
3. smaller tooth thickness.
4. greater bending strength.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

48. An hollow shaft of outer dia 40 mm and inner dia of 20 mm is to be replaced by a solid shaft to transmit the same torque at the same maximum stress. What should
be the diameter of the solid shaft ?
(a) 30 mm (b) 35 mm
(c) 10x(60)1/3mm (d) 10x(20)1/3mm

49. What is the direction of the Coriolis component of acceleration in a slotted lever-
crank mechanism ?
(a) Along the sliding velocity vector
(6) Along the direction of the crank
(c) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction opposite to the angular velocity of the slotted lever
(d) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction same as that of the angular velocity of the slotted lever

50. The controlling force curves for a spring-controlled governor are shown if the above figure. Which curve represents a stable governor ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4


51. For a governor running at constant speed, what is the value of the force acting on
the sleeve ?
(a) Zero (6) Variable depending upon the load
(c) Maximum (d) Minimum


52 A motion is aperiodic at what value of the damping factor ?
(a) 1. 0 or above (6) 0. 5
(c) 0. 3 (d) 0. 866

53 Which one of the following statements relating to belt drives is correct ?
(a) The rotational speeds of the pulleys are directly proportional to their diameters
(6) The length of the crossed belt increases as the sum of the diameters of the pulleys increases
(c) The crowning of the pulleys is done to make the drive sturdy
d) The slip increases the velocity ratio


54. Under service conditions involving jarring, vibration and pulsation of the
working load, the bolt of choice would be a
(a) short bolt with high rigidity (b) long bolt with increased elasticity
(c) bolt wiht a dished washer (d) bolt with castle nut

55. Gearing contact is which one of the following ?
(a) Sliding contact
(6) Sliding contact, only rolling at pitch point
(c) Rolling contact
(d) Rolling and sliding at each point of contact


Directions:
The next 4 (Four) items consist of two statements; one labelled as the 'Assertion(A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)\ You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true


56. Assertion (A) : For drilling cast iron, the tool is provided with a point angle smaller than
that required for a ductile material. Reason (R) : Smaller point angle results in lower rake angle.


57. Assertion (A) : Greater force on the plunger is required in case of direct extrusion then
indirect one. Reason (R) : In case of direct extrusion, the direction of the force applied on the plunger and the direction of the movement of the extruded metal are the same.


58. Assertion (A): In a multispindle automatic lathe, the turret tool holder is indexed to
engage the cutting tools one by one for successive machining operations.
Reason (R) : Turret is a multiple tool holder so that for successive machining operation, the tools need not be changed.

59. Assertion (A) : Value engineering is a technique applied to compete in the market only
at the time of introduction of a product or service. Reason (R) : Increasing the functional worth of a product appreciably, keeping the cost almost constant, is the real objective of value engineering.

60. Consider the following statements:
In a thick walled cylindrical pressure vessel subjected to internal pressure, the tangential and radial stresses are
1. minimum at outer side
2. minimum at inner side
3. maximum at inner side and both reduce to zero at outer well
4. maximum at inner wall but the radial stress reduces to zero at outer wall Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) l and 2 (6) l and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only

61. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a helical spring is halved in length, its spring stiffness
(a) remains same (b) halves
(c) doubles (d) triples '

62 . Which one of the following statements is correct ?
When a rectangular section beam is loaded transversely along the length, shear stress develops on
(a) top fibre of rectangular beam
(6) middle fibre of rectangular beam
(c) bottom fibre of rectangular beam
(d) every horizontal plane


63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(a) the bending moment is the same throughout the beam (6) the shear stress is the same throughout the beam
(c) the deflection is the same throughout the beam
(d) the bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis

64. A cantilever beam of 2 m length supports a triangularly distributed load over its
entire length, the maximum of which is at the free end. The total load is 37-5 kN.
What is the bending moment at the fixed end ?
(a) 50 x 106 N mm (b) 12. 5 x 106 N mm
(c) 100 x 106 N mm (d) 25 x 106 N mm

65. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a material expands freely due to heating, it will develop
(a) thermal stress (b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress (d) no stress

66. What is the phenomenon of progressive extension of the material i.e., strain increasing with the time at a constant load, called ?
(a) Plasticity (b) "Yielding
(c) Creeping (d) Breaking

67. What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called ?
(a) Homogeneous materials (6) /Viscoelastic materials
(c) Isotropic materials (d) Anisotropic materials

68. If the ratio G/E (G = Rigidity modulus, E = Young's modulus of elasticity) is 0>4,
then what is the value of the Poisson ratio ?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.33

69 Increase in values of which of the following results in an increase of the coeffi
cient of friction in a hydrodynamic bearing ?
1. Viscosity of the oil.
2. Clearance between shaft and bearing.
3. Shaft speed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements:
For a journal rotating a bearing under film lubrication conditions, the frictional resistance is
1. proportional to the area of contact
2. proportional to the viscosity of lubricant
3. propoi tional to the speed of rotation
4. independent of the pressure
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

71. Consider the following statements:
1. is a modification of moving average method
2. is a weighted average of past observations
3. assigns the highest weightage to the most recent observation Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

72. Consider the following statements:
Scheduling
1. is a general timetable of manufacturing
2. is the time phase of loading
3. is loading all the work in process on machines according to their capacity Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only

73. In an assembly line, what is the balance delay ?
(a) Line efficiency x 100 (b) 100 - Line efficiency (in percentage)
Line efficiency / 100
(c) (a) None of the above

74. If the fixed cost of the assets for a given period doubles, then how much will the
break-even quantity become ?
(a) Half the original value (6) Same as the original value
(c) Twice the original value (d) Four times the original value

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I (Term)
A. Dummy activity
B. Critical path
C. PERT activity
D. Critical path method
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
List II
(Characteristics)
1. Follows (3 distribution
2. It is built on activity-oriented diagram
3. Constructed only to establish sequence
4. Has zero total slack

76. Consider the following statements:
PERT considers the following time estimates
1. Optimistic time 2. Pessimistic time 3. Most likely time
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) l and 3 only

77. Which one of the following statements in not correct ?
(a) PERT is probabilistic and CPM is deterministic
(b) In PERT, events are used and in CPM activities are used
(c) In CPM, the probability to complete the project in a given time-duration is calculated
(d) In CPM crashing is carried out

78. Which of the following are the benefits of inventory control ? .
1. Improvement in customers relationship.
2. Economy in purchasing.
3. Elimination of the possibility of duplicate ordering. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I
A. Procurement cost
B. Carrying cost
C. Economic order quantity
D. Reorder point
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
List II
1. Cost of holding materials
2. Cost of receiving order
3. Procurement lead time
4. Break-even analysis

80. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost is doubled, the EOQ
(a) Is halved (6) Is doubled
(c) Increases 1.414 times (d) Decreases 1.414 times

81. Consider the following statements:
1. In C language, both data and the function that operate on that data are combined into a single unit called object.
2. Almost every correct statement in C is also a correct statement in C++, al though the reverse is not true.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (6) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


82. Which of the following methods are gear generating processes ?
1. Gear shaping 2.Gear hobbing 3. Gear milling
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2and3 only (d) land3 only

83. Among the following machining processes, which can be used for machining flat
surfaces ?
1. Shaping 2. Milling 3. Broaching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

84.What are the main components of an NC machine ?
1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (6) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only


85. Flank wear occurs mainly on which of the following ?
(a) Nose part and top face
(b) Cutting edge only
(c) Nose part, front relief face, and side relief face of the cutting tool
(d) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge

86. Which of the following are the machinability criteria ?
1, Tool life 2. Cutting forces 3, Surface finish
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (o) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

87. In strain gauge dynamometers, the use of how many active gauges makes the
dynamometer more effective ?
(a) Four (6) Three
(c) Two (d) One

88. For increasing the material removal rate in turning, without any constraints,
what is the right sequence to adjust the cutting parameters ?
1. Speed 2. Feed 3. Depth of cut
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3 (6) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-3-2


89. Consider the following statements in relation to the unconventional machining
processes:
1. Different forms of energy directly applied to work piece to have shape trans formation or material removal from work surface.
2. Relative motion between the work and the tool is essential.
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact with work piece.
Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) land 2 only (6) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

90. According to the principle of location in jigs and fixtures, how many degrees of
freedom are to be eliminated to have a body fixed in space ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 id) 6

91.What is the dominant direction of the tool marks or scratches in a surface texture
having a directional quality, called ?
(a) Primary texture (6) Secondary texture
(c) Lay {d) Flaw


92. Which one of the following is not a purpose of long-term forecasting ?
(a) To plan for the new unit of production
(6) To plan the long-term financial requirement
(c) To make the proper arrangement for training the personnel
(d) To decide the purchase programme


93. Consider the following statements relating to forecasting :
1. The time horizon to forecast depends upon where the product currently lies in its life cycle.
2. Opinion and judgemental forecasting methods sometimes incorpotate statistical analysis,
3. In exponential smoothing, low values ofsmoothening constant, alpha result in more smoothing than higher values of alpha.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

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91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Principle/Method) (Corresponding Application)
A. Klein's construction ' 1. Instantaneous centers in linkages
B. Kennedy's theorem 2. Relative acceleration of linkages
C. D' Alembert's principle 3. Mobility of linkages
D. Grubler's rule 4. Dynamic forces in linkages


Code:
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
92.

The figure above shows the schematic of an automobile having a mass of 900 kg and the
suspension spring constant of 81 x 104 N/m . If it travels at a speed of 72 km/hr on a rough
road with periodic waviness as shown, what is the forcing frequency of the road on the
wheel ?
(a) 10 Hz (b) 4 Hz
(c) 1.5 Hz (d) 20 Hz

93.
At a given instant, a disc is spinning with angular velocity co in a plane at right angles to thepaper, (see the figure) and after a short interval of time δt, it is spinning with angular
velocity w+δw and the axis of spin has changed direction by the amount δθ
In this situation what is the component of acceleration parallel to OA?
(a) dθ/dt (b) w(dθ/dt)
(c) dw/dt (d) dθ/dw

94. A shaft is subjected to combined twisting moment T and bending moment M. What is the
equivalent bending moment ?





95. The ratio of torque carrying capacity of a solid shaft to that of a hollow shaft is given by :
(a) (1-K4) (b) (1-K4)-1
(c) K4 (d) 1/K4
Where K=Di/Do
Di. = Inside diameter of hollow shaft
D0 = Outside diameter of hollow shaft Shaft materials are the same.

96. The principal stresses at a point in two-dimensional stress system are σ1 and σ2 and
corresponding principal strains are e1 and e2 If E and v denote Young's modulus and Poisson's
ratio, respectively, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) σ1=Ee1
(b) σ1=(E/[1-v2])[e1+ve2]
(c) σ1=(E/[1-v2])[e1-ve2]
(d) σ1=E(e1-ve2)

97. A point in a two dimensional state of strain is subjected to pure shearing strain of magnitude
Yxy radians. Which one of the following is the maximum principal strain ?
a) Yxy
b)Yxy/√2
c) Yxy/2
d) 2Yxy

98.

Consider the Mohr's circle shown above :
What is the state of stress represented by this circle ?

a)σx= σy (not equal to ) 0, σxy=0
b) σx=σy=0, σxy (not equal to ) 0
c) σx= 0 σy= σxy (not equal to ) 0
d)σx (not equal to ) 0 , σxy=σy=0

99. What is the relationship between the linear elastic properties Young's modulus (E), rigidity modulus (G) and bulk modulus (K) ?
a) 1/E= (9/K)+ (3/G)
b) 3/E= (9/K)+ (1/G)
c) 9/E= (3/K)+ (1/G)
d) 9/E= (1/K)+ (3/G)

100.
The shearing force diagram for a beam is shown in the above figure. The bending moment diagram is represented by which one of the following ?
(a) (b)



c) d)

101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - II
(Deals with topic)
1. Defelction of beam
2. Eccentrically loaded column
3. Rivetted joints
4. Continuous beam
List -1
(Formula/theorem/method)
A. Clapeyron's
B. Maculary's
C. Perry's
Code:

A B C
a) 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2
c) 4 1 3
d) 2 4 3


102. Which one of the following statements is correct in the case of screw dislocations ?
(b = Burgers Vector; t = Im aginary Vector)
(a) b is perpendicular to t
(b) b is parallel to t
(c) b is inclined to t
(d) b and t are non-coplanar and non-intersecting

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PART-B
61. The deficiency of which one of the following
leads to anemia?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Citirc acid
c. Folic acid
d. Nicotinic acid





62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoan
d. Nematode worm






63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
a. Grafting
b. Layering
c. Root cutting
d. Stem cutting






64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest
muscular walls?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle



65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a
true fruit?
a. Apple
b. Date
c. Coconut
d. Tomato




66. In human body, while one of the following
glands is located in the neck?
a. Adrenal
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid





67. In human body, which one among the
following secretes digestive enzyme?
a. Large institute
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen




68. Which one among the following is a warm
blooded animal?
a. Anaconda
b. Crocodile
c. Shark
d. Whale




69. Which one among the following is an ape
naturally found in India?
a. Chimpanzee
b. Hoolak Gibbon
c. Gorilla
d. Orangutan




70. Which one among the following plants
produces seeds without producing flower?
a. Cashew nut
b. Date Palm
c. Pinus
d. Toddy






71. The stem of which one of the following plants
is usually underground?
a. Banana
b. Sweet potato
c. Topioca
d. Water melon




72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI)
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group,
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food
Article’ in WPI?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21




73. Which one of the following is responsible for
bringing out the report on National and Per
Capita Income in India?
a. Ministry of Planning
b. Ministry of Human Resource
Development
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation




74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
of the following countries is the largest cutting
and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
a. Belgium
b. France
c. India
d. South Africa



75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
central pool, which one of the following States
has the highest share of contribution?
a. Haryana
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Uttar Pradesh





76. So far how many times has the countrywide
“Economic Census” been done in India?
a. Thrice
b. Five times
c. Seven times
d. Nine times





77. Which among the following was the capital of
Shivaji?
a. Singhagarh
b. Raigarh
c. Panhala
d. Poona





78. Who among the following arrived in the court
of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
of England?
a. William Hawkins
b. Sir Thomas Roe
c. Sir Edward Terry
d. Bernier






79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
of Bengal to the British East India Company in
the year 1765?
a. Jehangir
b. Shahjahan
c. Aurangzeb
d. Shah Alam-II





80. Who of the following was the representative of
Indian National Congress in the Second Round
Table Conference, held in London?
a. Madan Mohan Malviya
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Vallabhbhai Patel



81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
a. Paris
b. San Francisco
c. Tokyo
d. London




82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the
Constituent Assembly were held under which
one of the following?
a. Mountbatten Plan
b. Cabinet Mission
c. Cripps Proposals
d. Wavell Plan





83. Who among the following introduced cashew
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese




84. When All India Trade Union Congress was
founded in 1920, who of the following was
elected its president?
a. C.R. Das
b. Lala Pajpat Rai
c. N.M. Joshi
d. V.V. Giri




85. Which one of the following was the occasion
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward,
as an important national leader?
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Formation of Swaraj Party
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon
Commission



At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated
Sitaramayya, who among the following had
withdrawn his candidature from
Presidentship?
a. Abdul Kalam Azad
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Jayaprakash Narayan
d. Vallabhbhai Patel



87. Which one of the following was not a
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given
in 1920?
a. Boycott of titles
b. Boycott of Civil Services
c. Boycott of English education
d. Boycott of police and army





88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous
work Hind Swaraj written?
a. 1907
b. 1909
c. 1914
d. 1934




89. Consider the following statements with
reference to Union Government:
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff
Selection Commission is for five years or
still they attain the age of 62 years,
whichever is earlier.
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union
Public Service Commission is for six years
or till they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2




90. According to the provisions of the
Constitution of India, who inquires into all
doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
connection with the election of Vice-President
of India?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. The Election Commission of India
d. The Attorney General of India




91. Who among the following tribes live in the
Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
a. Apatani
b. Jarawa
c. Munda
d. Santhal




92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:

List I
(Book)
A. Crime and Punishment
B. Farewell to Arms
C. The Rights of Man
D. Unto The Last
List II
(Author)
1. Ernest Hemingway
2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
3. John Ruskin
4. Thomas Paine
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 1 4 3





93. In India, when both, the offices of the
President and the Vice-President happen to be
vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
duties of the President?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Union Home Minister
c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. The Chief Justice of India




94. For the review of which of the following was a
Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
Government?
* a. Industrial sickness
b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
d. Centre-State relations




95. In which one of the following countries did the
Industrial Revolution first take place?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Germany
d. France




96. Who of the following is the author of the
famous book ‘Das Kapital’?
a. Adam Smith
b. Karl Marx
c. Rousseau
d. Voltaire




97. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be
introduced only with the recommendation of
a. the President of India
b. the Prime Minister of India
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. the Union Finance Minister



98. Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar




99. State which one of the following groups of
oceanic water currents meet near
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland




100. How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six



101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A B C D
a.1 4 3 2
b.3 2 1 4
c.1 2 3 4
d.3 4 1 2



102. Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa




103. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia




104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia



105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai




106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea




107. In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan




108. Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor



109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform




110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela




111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores






112. What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes




113. Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres




114. Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield




115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing





116. The well-known sportsman Liu
Xiang has excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming




117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space



118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008




119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle



120. Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao


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SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.



1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something



2. BADGER


a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently



3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid




4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily




5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant




6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit



7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic



8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture



9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution


ANTONYMS


Directions (For the 7 items which follow):

Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.

10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying





11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest



12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate



13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness



14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper



15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation

16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation



Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering




18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound




19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat



20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress





21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry


SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.


22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)





23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)



24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)





25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)



26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)





27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)




ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.


28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q

29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P



30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S




31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.

S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.

Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q




32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?

a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R




33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R




34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R



35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.


Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .

36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.

Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R





37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?


a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S




ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)

Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.



38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-




39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S




40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?


a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q




41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P




42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P



43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S




44. While improvements

have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q




45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q





46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R



47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q



COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life


J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.


Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.


PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is

essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.


48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation




49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people




50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial



51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively




PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.



52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.



53. Which one of the following is correct?

A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors




54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure



55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated



56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly



PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.


57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.

d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.



58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen



59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!




60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science J
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.




Link to part 2