Wednesday, February 18, 2009

IES Previous paper Mechinal Engineering Paper 2 Part 4

IES FREE ONLINE QUESTION BANK PREVIOUS PAPER 2008 Objective Mech Engg. Objective paper 2

This Is 4th Part of 4.To see other parts Click links at bottom of this paper


91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Principle/Method) (Corresponding Application)
A. Klein's construction ' 1. Instantaneous centers in linkages
B. Kennedy's theorem 2. Relative acceleration of linkages
C. D' Alembert's principle 3. Mobility of linkages
D. Grubler's rule 4. Dynamic forces in linkages


Code:
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
92.

The figure above shows the schematic of an automobile having a mass of 900 kg and the
suspension spring constant of 81 x 104 N/m . If it travels at a speed of 72 km/hr on a rough
road with periodic waviness as shown, what is the forcing frequency of the road on the
wheel ?
(a) 10 Hz (b) 4 Hz
(c) 1.5 Hz (d) 20 Hz

93.
At a given instant, a disc is spinning with angular velocity co in a plane at right angles to thepaper, (see the figure) and after a short interval of time δt, it is spinning with angular
velocity w+δw and the axis of spin has changed direction by the amount δθ
In this situation what is the component of acceleration parallel to OA?
(a) dθ/dt (b) w(dθ/dt)
(c) dw/dt (d) dθ/dw

94. A shaft is subjected to combined twisting moment T and bending moment M. What is the
equivalent bending moment ?





95. The ratio of torque carrying capacity of a solid shaft to that of a hollow shaft is given by :
(a) (1-K4) (b) (1-K4)-1
(c) K4 (d) 1/K4
Where K=Di/Do
Di. = Inside diameter of hollow shaft
D0 = Outside diameter of hollow shaft Shaft materials are the same.

96. The principal stresses at a point in two-dimensional stress system are σ1 and σ2 and
corresponding principal strains are e1 and e2 If E and v denote Young's modulus and Poisson's
ratio, respectively, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) σ1=Ee1
(b) σ1=(E/[1-v2])[e1+ve2]
(c) σ1=(E/[1-v2])[e1-ve2]
(d) σ1=E(e1-ve2)

97. A point in a two dimensional state of strain is subjected to pure shearing strain of magnitude
Yxy radians. Which one of the following is the maximum principal strain ?
a) Yxy
b)Yxy/√2
c) Yxy/2
d) 2Yxy

98.

Consider the Mohr's circle shown above :
What is the state of stress represented by this circle ?

a)σx= σy (not equal to ) 0, σxy=0
b) σx=σy=0, σxy (not equal to ) 0
c) σx= 0 σy= σxy (not equal to ) 0
d)σx (not equal to ) 0 , σxy=σy=0

99. What is the relationship between the linear elastic properties Young's modulus (E), rigidity modulus (G) and bulk modulus (K) ?
a) 1/E= (9/K)+ (3/G)
b) 3/E= (9/K)+ (1/G)
c) 9/E= (3/K)+ (1/G)
d) 9/E= (1/K)+ (3/G)

100.
The shearing force diagram for a beam is shown in the above figure. The bending moment diagram is represented by which one of the following ?
(a) (b)



c) d)

101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - II
(Deals with topic)
1. Defelction of beam
2. Eccentrically loaded column
3. Rivetted joints
4. Continuous beam
List -1
(Formula/theorem/method)
A. Clapeyron's
B. Maculary's
C. Perry's
Code:

A B C
a) 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2
c) 4 1 3
d) 2 4 3


102. Which one of the following statements is correct in the case of screw dislocations ?
(b = Burgers Vector; t = Im aginary Vector)
(a) b is perpendicular to t
(b) b is parallel to t
(c) b is inclined to t
(d) b and t are non-coplanar and non-intersecting

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Monday, February 9, 2009

Previous Paper IES 2008 General Ability ( Part 2)
































This is Part 2 of GA ( General Ability ) Objective of IES 2008
to Download Select The text and save in Word or Notepad
Part 1 Given at Bottom of this Paper

PART-B
61. The deficiency of which one of the following
leads to anemia?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Citirc acid
c. Folic acid
d. Nicotinic acid





62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoan
d. Nematode worm






63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
a. Grafting
b. Layering
c. Root cutting
d. Stem cutting






64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest
muscular walls?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle



65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a
true fruit?
a. Apple
b. Date
c. Coconut
d. Tomato




66. In human body, while one of the following
glands is located in the neck?
a. Adrenal
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid





67. In human body, which one among the
following secretes digestive enzyme?
a. Large institute
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen




68. Which one among the following is a warm
blooded animal?
a. Anaconda
b. Crocodile
c. Shark
d. Whale




69. Which one among the following is an ape
naturally found in India?
a. Chimpanzee
b. Hoolak Gibbon
c. Gorilla
d. Orangutan




70. Which one among the following plants
produces seeds without producing flower?
a. Cashew nut
b. Date Palm
c. Pinus
d. Toddy






71. The stem of which one of the following plants
is usually underground?
a. Banana
b. Sweet potato
c. Topioca
d. Water melon




72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI)
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group,
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food
Article’ in WPI?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21




73. Which one of the following is responsible for
bringing out the report on National and Per
Capita Income in India?
a. Ministry of Planning
b. Ministry of Human Resource
Development
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation




74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
of the following countries is the largest cutting
and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
a. Belgium
b. France
c. India
d. South Africa



75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
central pool, which one of the following States
has the highest share of contribution?
a. Haryana
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Uttar Pradesh





76. So far how many times has the countrywide
“Economic Census” been done in India?
a. Thrice
b. Five times
c. Seven times
d. Nine times





77. Which among the following was the capital of
Shivaji?
a. Singhagarh
b. Raigarh
c. Panhala
d. Poona





78. Who among the following arrived in the court
of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
of England?
a. William Hawkins
b. Sir Thomas Roe
c. Sir Edward Terry
d. Bernier






79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
of Bengal to the British East India Company in
the year 1765?
a. Jehangir
b. Shahjahan
c. Aurangzeb
d. Shah Alam-II





80. Who of the following was the representative of
Indian National Congress in the Second Round
Table Conference, held in London?
a. Madan Mohan Malviya
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Vallabhbhai Patel



81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
a. Paris
b. San Francisco
c. Tokyo
d. London




82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the
Constituent Assembly were held under which
one of the following?
a. Mountbatten Plan
b. Cabinet Mission
c. Cripps Proposals
d. Wavell Plan





83. Who among the following introduced cashew
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese




84. When All India Trade Union Congress was
founded in 1920, who of the following was
elected its president?
a. C.R. Das
b. Lala Pajpat Rai
c. N.M. Joshi
d. V.V. Giri




85. Which one of the following was the occasion
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward,
as an important national leader?
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Formation of Swaraj Party
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon
Commission



At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated
Sitaramayya, who among the following had
withdrawn his candidature from
Presidentship?
a. Abdul Kalam Azad
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Jayaprakash Narayan
d. Vallabhbhai Patel



87. Which one of the following was not a
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given
in 1920?
a. Boycott of titles
b. Boycott of Civil Services
c. Boycott of English education
d. Boycott of police and army





88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous
work Hind Swaraj written?
a. 1907
b. 1909
c. 1914
d. 1934




89. Consider the following statements with
reference to Union Government:
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff
Selection Commission is for five years or
still they attain the age of 62 years,
whichever is earlier.
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union
Public Service Commission is for six years
or till they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2




90. According to the provisions of the
Constitution of India, who inquires into all
doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
connection with the election of Vice-President
of India?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. The Election Commission of India
d. The Attorney General of India




91. Who among the following tribes live in the
Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
a. Apatani
b. Jarawa
c. Munda
d. Santhal




92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:

List I
(Book)
A. Crime and Punishment
B. Farewell to Arms
C. The Rights of Man
D. Unto The Last
List II
(Author)
1. Ernest Hemingway
2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
3. John Ruskin
4. Thomas Paine
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 1 4 3





93. In India, when both, the offices of the
President and the Vice-President happen to be
vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
duties of the President?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Union Home Minister
c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. The Chief Justice of India




94. For the review of which of the following was a
Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
Government?
* a. Industrial sickness
b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
d. Centre-State relations




95. In which one of the following countries did the
Industrial Revolution first take place?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Germany
d. France




96. Who of the following is the author of the
famous book ‘Das Kapital’?
a. Adam Smith
b. Karl Marx
c. Rousseau
d. Voltaire




97. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be
introduced only with the recommendation of
a. the President of India
b. the Prime Minister of India
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. the Union Finance Minister



98. Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar




99. State which one of the following groups of
oceanic water currents meet near
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland




100. How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six



101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A B C D
a.1 4 3 2
b.3 2 1 4
c.1 2 3 4
d.3 4 1 2



102. Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa




103. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia




104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia



105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai




106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea




107. In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan




108. Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor



109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform




110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela




111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores






112. What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes




113. Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres




114. Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield




115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing





116. The well-known sportsman Liu
Xiang has excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming




117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space



118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008




119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle



120. Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao


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IES General Ability 2008
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SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.



1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something



2. BADGER


a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently



3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid




4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily




5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant




6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit



7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic



8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture



9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution


ANTONYMS


Directions (For the 7 items which follow):

Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.

10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying





11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest



12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate



13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness



14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper



15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation

16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation



Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering




18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound




19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat



20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress





21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry


SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.


22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)





23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)



24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)





25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)



26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)





27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)




ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.


28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q

29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P



30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S




31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.

S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.

Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q




32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?

a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R




33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R




34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.


Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R



35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.


Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .

36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.

Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R





37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?


a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S




ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)

Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.



38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-




39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S




40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?


a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q




41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P




42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P



43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S




44. While improvements

have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q




45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q





46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R



47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q



COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life


J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.


Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.


PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is

essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.


48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation




49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people




50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial



51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively




PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.



52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.



53. Which one of the following is correct?

A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors




54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure



55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated



56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly



PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.


57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.

d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.



58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen



59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!




60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science J
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.




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61 Which of the following in-line engines working on four-stroke cycle is completely balanced inherently ?
(a) 2 cylinder engine (b) 3 cylinder engine
(c) 4 cylinder engine (d) 6 cylinder engine


62. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10 teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with
respect to that of drive will be approximately
(a) same (b) 5% above
(c) 5% below (d) 5% above to 5% below


63 Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion and gear is
(a) less than 1.0 (b) equal to 1
(c) between 2 and 3 (d) greater than 3


64. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a standard deviation 4 months, what is the
probability that the project will be completed in 24 months ?
(a) 15.85% (b) 68.3%
(c) 84.2% (d) 95.50%



65. Weekly production requirements of a product are 1000 items. The cycle time of producing one product on a machine is 10 minutes. The factory works on two shift basis in which total available time is 16 hours. Out of the available time about 25% is exprected to be wasted on break downs, material unavailability and quality related problems. The factory works for 5 days in a week. How many machines are required to fulfill the production requirements ?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6


66 Which one of the following is not a technique of Long Range Forecasting ?
(a) Market Research and Market Survey (b) Delphi
(c) Collective Opinion (d) Correlation and Regression



67. Using the exponential smoothing method of forecasting, what will be the forecast for the fourth week if the actual and forecasted demand for the third week is 480 and 500
respectively and a = 0.2 ?
(a) 400 (b) 496
(c) 500 (d) 504


68. Consider the following characteristics of assembly line balancing :
1. apportionment of sequential work activities into work stations
2. high utilization of equipment
3. minimization of idle time
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only


69. In the production of a product the fixed costs are Rs. 6, 000/-and the variable cost is
Rs. 10/-per product. If the sale price of the product is Rs. 12/-, the break even volume of products to be made will be :
(a) 2000 (b) 3000
(c) 4000 (d) 6000

70 The inter-arrival times at a tool crib are exponential with an average time of 10 minutes and the length of the service time is assumed to be exponential with mean 6 minutes.The probability that a person arriving at the booth will have to wait is equal to :
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.40
(c) 0.42 (d) 0.6


71. If A is greater than B then it is expressed in FORTRAN as :
(a) A>B (b) AGTB
(c) A.GT.B (d) AGT.B


72. Which one of the following is not a command in DBase III ?
(a) Create (b) List
(c) Sort (d) Remove


73. Which one of the following statements regarding computers is not correct ?
(a) Databses contain fields and records
(b) The organized set of instructions given to the computer to solve a problem is called a program
(c) Collection of 8 bits is called a byte
(d) Spreadsheet is a term used in FORTRAN language



74. In three ball bearings identified as
SKF 2015,3115 and 4215
(a) bore is common but width is increasing
(b) outer diameter is common but bore is increasing
(c) width is common but outer diameter is decreasing
(d) bore is common but outer diameter is decreasing



75. Maximum angular velocity of the connecting rod with a crank to connecting rod ratio 1:5
for a crank speed of 3000 rpm is around :
(a) 300rad/s (b) 60rad/s
(c) 30rad/s (d) 3000rad/s


76. Consider the following statements about antifriction bearings :
1. Their location influences the lateral critical speed of a rotor.
2. Roller bearings are antifriction bearings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) lonly (b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


77. Consider the following statements :
1. One way of improving vibration isolation is to decrease the mass of the vibrating object.
2. For effective isolation, the natural frequency of the system should be far less than the exciting frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) lonly (b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


78 Consider the following statements in respect of austentic stainless steels :
1. Austenitic stainless steels are hardened and strengthened by cold working.
2. Austenitic stainless steels cannot be quenched and tempered. ~ Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2



Directions : Each of the next Twelve (12) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
{b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
79. Assertion (A) : Value Engineering is concerned with increasing the quality of the product
even at enhanced cost to fulfill the customer requirements.
Reason (R) : Customer requirements are changing very rapidly and survival of a manufacturing industry is linked with fulfilling the customers requirements.


80. Assertion (A) : Lever Rule can be applied to determine relative amounts of phases present
at any temperature.
Reason (R) : Lever Rule is restricted to estimate relative phases, only if they are solid phases.


81. Assertion (A) : In case of Control Chart for fraction rejected (p-chart), binomial
distribution is used.
Reason (R) : In binomial distribution probability of the event varies with each draw.


82. Assertion (A) : In case of Control Charts for variables, the averages of sub-groups of
readings are plotted instead of plotting individual readings.
Reason (R) : It has been proved through experiments that averages will form normal
distribution curve.

83. Assertion (A) : In centralized inspection, material handling is less.
Reason (R) : Less number of gauges and instruments are required as inspection is carried out in one location.


84. Assertion (A) : Submerged arc welding is not recommended for high carbon steels, tool steels, aluminium, magnesium etc.
Reason (R) : This is because of unavailability of suitable fluxes, reactivity at high temeratures and low sublimation temperatures.


85 Assertion (A) ;The Lewis equation for design of gear tooth predicts the static load capacity of a cantilever beam of uniform strength

Reason (R):According to law of gears interchangeabiiity is possible only when gears have same pressure angle and same module

86 . Assertion (A);Elements are classified into metals and nonmetals on the basis of their atomic weights.
Reason (R) The valence electron structures contribute to the primary bonding between the atoms to form aggregates


87 Assertion (A);In design of double fillet welding of unsymmetrical sections with plates subjected to axial loads lengths of parallel welds are made unequal

Reason (R);The lengths of parallel welds in fillet welding of an unsymmetrical section with a plate are so proportioned that the sum of the resisting moments of welds about the centre of gravity axis is zero


88. Assertion (A):A cotter joint is used to rigidly connect two coaxial rods carrying tensile load.

Reason (R) :Taper in the cotter is provided to facilitate its removal when it fails due to shear.


89. Assertion (A) :Two pulleys connected by a crossed belt rotate in opposite directions.
Reason (R) :The length of the crossed belt remains constant.


90. Assertion (A) :In steady rotating condition the journal inside a hydrodynamic journal bearing remains floating on the oil film.

Reason (R):The hydrodynamic pressure developed in steady rotating conditions in journal bearings balances the load on the journal.

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31. Which one of the following is correct ?
Production, planning and control functions are extremely complex in
(a) job-production shop producing small number of pieces only once
(b) job-production shop producing small number of pieces intermittently
(c) batch production shop producing a batch only once
(d) batch production shop producing a batch at irregular intervals



32. Consider the following steps in production, planning and control:
1. Capacity planning
2. Material requirement planning
3. Purchasing
4. Design decisions
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above steps in operations
management ?
(a) 2-3-4-1 (b) 2-4-3-1
(c) 4-1-2-3 (d) 1-2-4-3


33 A PERT activity has an optimistic time estimate of 3 days, a pessimistic time estimate of
8 days, and a most likely time estimate of 10 days. What is the expected time of this activity?
(a) 5.0 days (b) 7.5 days
(c) S.Odyas (d) 8.5 days

34. Which one of the following statments is not correct ?
(a) PERT is activity oriented and CPM is event oriented
(b) In PERT, three time estimates are made, whereas in CPM only one time estimate is made
(c) In PERT slack is calculated whereas in CPM floats are calculated
(d) Both PERT and CPM are used for project situations



35. What is the additional time available for the performance of an activity in PERT and CPM
calculated on the basis that all activities will start at their earliest start time, called ?
(a) Slack (b) Total float
(c) Free float (d) Independent float


36. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, holding
cost is Rs. 10 per unit month, what is the EOQ ?
(a) 12 (b) 144
(c) 24 (d) 28



37. Which one of the following is correct ?
In the basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 5 to 10 days, the EOQ will
(a) double (b) decrease by a factor of two
(c) remains the same (d) the data is insufficient to find EOQ
60. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Work sampling is a technique of work measurement
(b) Method study is a technique aimed at evolving improved methods
(c) Synthetic data is not a technique covered under pre-determined motion time systems
(d) 'Select' is the first step of method study



38. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be set. A job is rated at 120 percent, it takes 30
seconds to enter each record and the allowances are 15%. What is the normal time ?
(a) 25 seconds (b) 30 seconds
(c) 36 seconds (d) 40 seconds


39. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The operating characteristic curve of an acceptance sampling plan shows the ability of the plan to distinguish between good and bad lots.
(b) No sampling plan can give complete protection against the acceptance of defective products.
(c) C chart has straight line limits and U chart has zig-zag limits.
(d) Double sampling results in more inspection than single sampling if the incoming quality is very bad.


40 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) A linear programming problem with 2 variables and 3 constraints can be solved by Graphical Method.
(b) In big-M method if the artificial variable can not be driven out it depicts an optimal solution.
(c) Dual of a dual is the primal problem.
(d) For mixed constraints either big-M method or two phase method can be employed.



41. In order for a transportation matrix which has six rows and four columns not to degenerate,what is the number of occupied cells in the matrix ?
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 24



42 The Central Processing Unit of a minicomputer uses which of the following blocks
1. Memory Unit
2. Control Unit
3. Arithmetic Unit
4. Output Unit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) land 2 (b) land 3
(c) 2and 3 (d) land 4

43 Which one of the following statements about FORTRAN is not correct ?
(a) GO TO 999 (b) CONTINUE 999
(c) PRINT 999 (d) DIMENSION A (999)


44. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred in casting because
(a) it enables rapid filling of mould cavity (b) it is easier to provide in the mould
(c) it profieds cleaner metal (d) it reduces splashing and turbulence


45. The pattern adopted for those castings where there are some portions which are structurally
weak and are likely to break by the force of ramming are called :
(a) Loose piece pattern (b) Follows board pattern
(c) Skelton pattern (rf) Single piece pattern


46. Which of the following casting processes does not/do not require central core for producing
pipe ?
1. Sand casting process
2. Die casting process
3. Centrifugal casting process
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) land2 (b) 2only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only


47. Small amount of carbonaceous material sprinkled on the inner surface of mould cavity is
called
(a) Backing sand (b) Facing sand
(c) Green sand (d) Dry sand



48. Which one of the following methods is used for the manufacture of collapsible tooth paste
tubes ?
(a) Impact extrusion (b) Direct extrusion
(c) Deep drawing (d) Piercing



49. A cylindrical vessel with fla' bottom can be deep drawn by
(a) shallow drawing (b) single action deep drawing
(c) double action deep drawing (d) triple action deep drawing






50.Consider the following statements :
1. Metal forming decreases harmful effects of impurities and improves mechanical strength.
2. Metal working process is a plastic deformation process.
3. Very intricate shapes can be produced by forging process as compared to casting process. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2and3 {b) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

51. Structure of a polymer is :
(a) Long chain (b) Rhombic
(c) Cubic (d) Closed pack hexagonal



52. A structural member subjected to an axial compressive force is called
(a) beam (b) column
(c) frame (d) strut



53. In case of a beam of circular cross-section subjected to transverse loading, the maximum
shear stress developed in the beam is greater than the average shear stress by
(a) 50% $) 33%
(c) 25% (d) 10%


54. In I-section of a beam subjected to transverse shear force, the maximum shear stress is
developed
(a) at the centre of the web (b) at the top edge of the top flange
(c) at the bottom edge of the top flange (d) none of the above


55. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's Circle
(a) is equal to radius of Mohr's circle (b) is greater than radius of Mohr's circle
(c) is less than radius of Mohr's circle (d) could be any of the above


56 Consider the following statements :
Maximum shear stress induced in a power transmitting shaft is
1. directly proportional to torque being transmitted.
2. inversely proportional to the cube of its diameter.
3. directly proportional to its polar moment of inertia. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) land3only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) J and 2 only

57. Consider the following :-belts are specified by their
1. nominal inside length in mm
2. nominal pitch length
3. belt cross section symbol
4. weight/unit length of the belt Which of the above are correct ?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) land 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only


58. Consider the following statements :
A nomenclature 50 H8/p8 denotes that
1. hole diameter is 50 mm.
2. it is a shaft base system.
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only


59 Consider the following statements:
1. The amount of interference needed to create a tight joint varies with diameter of the shaft.
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in the shaft.
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a thick-walled cylinder with internal pressure. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only

60. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a maximum load of 980. 175 kN. If the design stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what is the diameter of each bolt ?
(a) 10 mm {b) 22 mm
(c) 30 mm (d) 36 mm


Note This one is Part 2 of 4
Link to part 1
Link to part 3
Link to part 4

IES 2008 Mechanical Engineering Paper II Previous Question Paper

Indian Engineering Services IES Conducted By UPSC Year 2008 Paper II Objective Mech Engineering .This is part 1 of 4 For Other parts Check Links given at Bottom of This paper

1 Which mechanism produces intermittent rotary motion from continuous rotary motion ?
(a) Whitworth mechanism (b) Scotch Yoke mechanism
(c) Geneva mechanism (d) Elliptical trammel



2 A journal bearing with hydrodynamic lubrication is running steadily with a certain amount of minimum film thickness. When the load speed are doubled, how does the minimum film thickness vary ?
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Gets doubled
(c) Gets reduced to one-fourth of original value
(d) Gets reduced to half of original value


3 Interference between an involute gear and a pinion can be reduced by which of the following ?
1. Increasing the pressure angle of the teeth in the pair, the number of teeth remaining the same.
2. Decreasing the addendum of the gear teeth and increasing the same for the pinion teeth by the corresponding amount.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) l only (b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


4 Which one of the following is correct ?
When two teeth profiles of gears are conjugate, the sliding velocity between them
(a) is always zero all through the path of contact
(b) is zero, at certain points along the path of contact
(c) is never zero anywhere on the path of contact
(d) can be made zero by proper selection of profiles


5. For a speed ratio of 100 smallest gear box is obtained by using which of the following ?
(a) A pair of spur gears
(b) A pair of bevel and a pair of spur gears in compound gear train
(c) A pair of helical and a pair of spur gears in compound gear train
(d) A pair of helical and a pair of worm gears in compound gear train



6. Among the following four designs of a flywheel with given mass M(kg) and external
diameter D(m), which is the one with the highest energy storage capacity ?
(a) Plain circular disc of uniform thickness
(b) Double conical disc thicker at the centre and thinner at the periphery
(c) Double conical disc thinner at the centre and thicker at the periphery
(d) Circular ring with spokes

7 Which one of the following mechanisms represents an inversion of the single slider-crank chain ?
(a) Elliptical trammel {b) Oldham's coupling
(c) Whitworth quick return mechanism (d) Pantograph mechanism


8 Which one of the following is correct ?
A hydrodynamic slider bearing develops load-bearing capacity mainly because of
(a) slider velocity (b) wedge shaped oil film
(c) oil compressibility (d) oil viscosity



9 Which one of the following is correct ?
When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to
(a) compression only (b) tension
(c) shear only (d) compression and shear



10. Which material is used for bushes in the bushed-pin type of flexible coupling ?
(a) Gun metal {b) Plastic
(c) Rubber (d) Aluminium


11. The balls of the ball bearings are manufactured from steel rods. The operations involved are:
1. Ground
2. Hot forged on hammers
3. Heat treated
4. Polished
What is the correct sequence of the above operations from start ?
(a) 3-2-4-1 (b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 2-3-4-1


12. In automobiles, Hook's joint is used between which of the following ?
(a) Clutch and gear box (b) Gear box and differential
(c) Differential and wheels (d) Flywheel and clutch



13. In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to a maximum tension T and centrifugal
tension T . What is the condition for transmission of maximum power ?
(a) T = Tc (b) T = V3Tc
(c) T = 2T (d) T = 3T



14 A100 mm x 5 mm x 5 mm steel bar free toexpand is heated from 15 °C to 40°C. What shall be developed ?
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stress
(c) Shear stress (d) No stress


15 What is the shape of the shearing stress distribution across a rectangular cross-section beam?
(a) Triangular
(b) Parabolic only
(c) Rectangular only
(d) A combination of rectangular and parabolic shape


16 Where does the maximum hoop stress in a thick cylinder under external pressure occur ?
(a) At the outer surf ace (b) At the inner surf ace
(c) At the mid-thickness (d) At the 2/3cd outer radius


17 Who postulated the maximum distortion energy theory ?
(a) Tresca {b) Rankine
(c) St. Venant(d) Mises-Henky


18 Which one of the following is correct ?
When "devitrification" of inorganic glasses is done,
(a) glass transforms from crystalline to non-crystalline state
(b) glass transforms into a fully transparent material
(e) glass, transforms from non-crystalline state to poly-crystalline state ; (d) glass is relieved of internal stresses


19 What is a surface imperfection, which separates crystals of different orientations in a
poly-crystalline aggregate, called ?
(a) Edge dislocation (b) Stacking fault
(c) Grain boundary (d) Screw dislocation


20 Which one of the following is correct ?
Malleability is the property by which a metal or alloy can be plastically deformed by applying
(a) tensile stress (b) bending stress
(c) shear stress (d) compressive stress


21. Which of the following elements given below determine (s) the maimum attainable hard
ness in steel?
1. Chromium
2. Manganese
3. Carbon
4. Molybdenum
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) l only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4



22. Coefficient of Expansion is practically nil in a particular alloy. What is this alloy ?
(a) Hadfield Manganese Steel {b) Invar
(c) Vitallium (d) Stellite




23. Consider the following statements relating to mechanical properties of ceramics :
1. Tensile strength is theoretically high but in practice quite low.
2. Compressive strength is many times lower than tensile strength.
3. Shear strength is high.
4. Transverse strength is easy to ascertain. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) land 3 (b) land 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4



24. What is the process by which two or more chemically different monomers are polymerised to
form a cross link polymer together with a by-product such as water or ammonia, known as ?
(a) Addition polymerisation (b) Co-polymerisation
(c) Linear polymerisation (d) Condensation polymerisation



25. Which one of the following is correct ?
Babbitts are used for
(a) gears (b) bearings
(c) bolts (d) clutch liners


26 Cold forging results in improved quality due to which of the following ?
1. Better mechanical properties of the process.
2. Unbroken grain flow.
3. Smoother finishes.
4. High pressure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (rf) 1,3 and 4




27 . Consider the following statements :
In an orthogonal cutting the cutting ratio is found to be 0.75. The cutting speed is 60 m/min
and depth of cut 2.4 mm.
Which of the following are correct ?
1. Chip velocity will be 45 m/min.
2. Chip velocity will be 80 m/min.
3. Chip thickness will be 1.8 mm.
4. Chip thickness will be 3.2 mm.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) land3 (b) land4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4



28 What are the reasons for reduction of tool life in a machining operation ?
1. Temperature rise of cutting edge
2. Chipping of tool edge due to mechanical impact
3. Gradual wear at tool point
4. Increase in feed of cut at constant cutting force Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4



29 What term is used to designate the direction of the predominant surface pattern produced
by machining operation ?
(a) Roughness (b) Lay
(c) Waviness (d) Cutoff


30. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Schedule chart shows the processing of a job on various work centres against time
(b) Load chart shows the processing of various jobs on a work centre against time
(c) Dispatching is the activity related with dispatching of goods to the customers
(d) Routing is the activity related with the operations and their sequence to be performed on the job



This is part 1 of 4 parts of Question Paper

Link to part 2
Link to Part 3
Link to Part 4

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