Civil Engineering Previous Questions From IES
Civil Engineering model question papers for ies
IES / Previous Questions With Answers Civil Engineering
1. What is the ratio of the elastic modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the transverse direction?
(a) 1/2 to 1
(b) 1/10 to 1/20
(c) 1 to 2
(d) l0 to 20
Ans. (c)
2. A circular rod of diameter 30 mm and length 200 mm is subjected to a tensile force. The extension in rod is 0.09 mm and
change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. What is the Poisson’s ratio of the material of the rod?
(a) 0.30
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.35
Ans. (c)
3. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 GPa and Poisson’s ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
(a) 74.0 GPa
(b) 80.0 GPa
(c) 100.0 GPa
(d) 128.5 GPa
Ans. (b)
4. What would be the shape of the failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen subjected to torque?
(a) Cup and cone shape at the centre
(b) Plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(c) Pyramid type wedge-shaped surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
(d) Helicoidal surface at 45° to the axis of the specimen
Ans. (d)
5. Given E as the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity?
(a) E/2
(b) E/3
(c) E/4
(d) E/5
Ans. (b)
6. An equipment costs Rs. 25 Lakhs with an estimated salvage value of Rs. 5 Lakhs after 5 years of useful life. What is the
approximate equated annual cost for use of the equipment?
(a) Rs. 4 Lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 13 Lakhs
(d) Rs.17 Lakhs
Ans. (a)
7. Consider the following parameters:
1. The stability of the footing
2. The strength of the boom
3. The counter weight
4. Size of aggregates
Which of the above parameters governs the load capacity of a crane?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
8. A preliminary survey indicated that 20% of the time of a gang of workers is spent idly. What is the total number of observations
required to determine the proportion of idle time with 95 % confidence limit? Critical value at this level of confidence is 1. 96
(a) 236 observations
(b) 246 observations
(c) 256 observations
(d) 266 observations
Ans. (b)
9. Consider the following equipments
1. Drag line
2. Power shovel
3. Hoe
4. Crawler dozer
Which of the above may be used for excavation of materials and loading them into trucks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
10. Consider the following statements
The shear resistance of structural concrete members may be improved by:
1. Axial prestressing
2. Vertical prestressing
3. Inclined prestressing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
11. What shall be the maximum area of reinforcement
(i) In compression and
(ii) In tension to be provided in an RC beam, respectively, as per 1S456?
(a) 0.08% and 2%
(b) 2% and’4%
(c) 4% and 2%
(d) 4% and 4%
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following statements for minimum reinforcement to be provided .in a wall as a ratio of vertical reinforcement
to gross concrete area.
1. 0.0012 for deformed bars
2. 0.0015 for all other types of bars
3. 0.0012 for welded wire fabric with wires not larger than 16 mm in diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
13. What is the duration by which the completion time of any activity can be delayed without affecting the start of any of
the suceeding activities?
(a) Interfering float
(b) Free float
(c) Independent float
(d) Total float.
Ans. (b)
14. A, power shovel is fitted with an engine of 150 f.w.h.p. It operates on full load for 6 minutes followed by 8 minutes for idling at
one-third power. Its hourly utilization is for 3 cycles. What is its utilization factor?
(a) 0.398
(b) 0.433
(c) 0.467
(d) 0.528
Ans. (b)
15. A construction equipment has a useful life of 4 years after which it is to be replaced by a new, one. If the interest rate is 6%, what
is the nearest value of the sinking fund factor?
(a) 0.023
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.17
(d) 0.31
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no large difference in speed between wheeled tractors and crawlers.
2. The operating cost of crawlers is generally more than for wheeled tractors.
3. Both, viz ., wheeled •tractors as well as crawlers, need to be mounted on trailers for long distance hauls.
4. Wheeled tractors may occasionally suffer slips whereas crawlers do not
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following is associated with a critical activity in a A-O-A network?
(a) Maximum float
(b) Minimum float
(c) Zero float
(d) Free float
Ans. (c)
18. A uniform series of income is available in perpetuity, which will yield an amount of Rs. 4,000/- at the end of each 4-year period.
Sinking fund (deposit) factor, @ 8% p.a., for discrete compounding, is 0.222. For the same interest rate, What will the capitalized
equivalent income ‘now’?
(a) Rs. 11,100
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 14,285
(d) Rs. 16,000
Ans. (b)
19. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a single
bay portal frame fixed at base?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
20. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
d) 33%
Ans. (a)
Friday, May 27, 2011
civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES
civil Engineering Questions for UPSC IES
UPSC Engineering Services Exam civil engineering Model Test Questions
UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering
1. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is
100 hectares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0
cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?
(a) (1.8 to 2) x 104 m3perday
(b) (2.5 to 2.75) x 104 m3per day
(c) (3.0 to3.25) x l04 m3perday
(d) (3.8 to 4.05) x 104 m3perday
Ans. (c)
2. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?
(a) Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period
(b) Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms
(c) Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically
(d) Effective perceptible water
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the following statements:
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which
1. A canal is carried over the drainage channel.
2. A drainage channel ‘is carried over the canal.
3. Both drainage channel and canal are at the same level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (a)
4. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.
2. By recording the drawdown in installed observation wells at different time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
5. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carring laminar flow of a liquid with ji 1.6 centipoise, the
velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the
axis?
(a) 0.01 N/m2
(b).0125N/m2
(c) 0.0175 N/m2
(d) 0.02 N/m2
Ans. (c)
6. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spill. way. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
(a) 27
(b) 10.5
(c) 15
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
7. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth by 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge?
(a) 12%
(b) 20%
(c) 36%
(d) 48%
Ans. (c)
8. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed 4s, then what is the peak water hammer, pressure in m of water?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 120
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A heterotroph is an organism that obtains
(a) Its cell carbon from an inorganic source
(b) Its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds
(c) Its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter
(d) Its energy from a natural ecosystem
Ans. (c)
10. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
(a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
(b) Magnification pertaining to microscopy
(c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
(d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
Ans. (d)
11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
(a) Uniform for the full width
(b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
(c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
(d) Of an irregular shape
Ans. (c)
12. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry
density?
(a) Silty clay—Clay—Sand—Grave sand clay mixture
(b) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture—Silty clay—Clay
(c) Clay—Silty clay—Sand— Gravel sand clay mixture
(d) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture— Clay—Silty clay
Ans. (c)
13. Consider the following statements:
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements liven above is correct?
(a). 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below,
the lists;
List-I (Speed) List-II (Application)
A. Space mean speed 1. Road conditions studies
B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation?
(a) Driving a drift through the tunne1
(b) ‘Blow in’ method
(c) ‘Blow out’ method
(d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’ methods
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails?
(a) Wave theory
(b) Percussion theory
(c) Drag theory
(d) Reversal theory
Ans. (d)
17. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 2° curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of 1 in 200?
(a) 1 in 250
(b) 1 in 238
(c) I in 209
(d) I in 198
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is not correct for container ports?
(a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Overall transit time is less
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo
(d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling area
Ans. (b)
19. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted soil
(b) Geomembrane
(c) Geotexile
(d) Geocomposite
Ans. (a)
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollution) List-II (Impact on Human Health)
A. Particulates 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
B. Carbon monoxide 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract
C. Sulphur oxides 3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, headache etc.
D. Photochemical oxidants 4. Causes respiratory illness
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
21. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
(a) Looping
(b) Inversion
(c) Coning
(d) Lofting
Ans. (d)
22. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?
(a) 80—100 dB
(b) 101—150 dB
(c) 51—70 dB
(d) 40—50 dB
Ans. (c)
23. A rectangular channel 3 wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is .l m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly)?
(a) 0.3 N/m2
(b) 0.15 N/m2
(c) 3.0 N/m2
(d) 1.5 N/m2
Ans. (d)
24. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale of 1: 100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3 /s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype of what magnitude?
(a) 102 m3 /s
(b) 103 m3 /s
(c) 104 m3 /s
(d) 105 m3 /s
Ans. (d)
25. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1: 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?
(a) 15.6kN
(b) 25.3kN
(c) 78kN
(d) 90kN
Ans. (c)
26. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radial distance, measured from the centre?
(a) 0.50R
(b) 0.71R
(c) 0.67 R
(d) 0.29 R
Ans. (b)
27. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s-1. The upstream depth is
2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.3
(c) 2.3
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
28. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge
(perimeter width)?
(a) 1.0 m2/s
(b) 1.4 m2/s
(c) 2.0 m2/s
(d) 2.8 m2/s
Ans. (d)
29. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a
discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the
Froude number of the flow?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6
Ans. (b)
30. Consider the following statements associated with groynes:
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of
particles that constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
31. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
(a) 5.5 m/s
(b) 11.2 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 9m/s
Ans. (a)
32. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate?
(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above MS.L.
Ans. (b)
The following questions consists of two statements , Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions choose any of the following four responses
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true and reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.
33. Assertion (A): A discrete particle (of diameter d0) settling in a circular sedimentation
tank follows a parabolic path.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0)
in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.
Ans. (a)
34. Assertion (A): Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting
Unconfined compression test.
Reason (R): The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for dry
and saturated sands, in drained condition.
Ans. (d)
35. Assertion (A): Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the structure is difficult.
Ans. (b)
36. Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil
in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 110° C.
Reason (R): The free water, absorbed water and structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 110° C.
Ans. (c)
37. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on
the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above
the sea level are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and
the lighthouse?
(a) 29.8 km
(b) 31.1 km
(c) 31.9 km
(d) 33.2 km
Ans. (b)
38. Match List-I with List-il and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists;
List-I (Instrument) List-II (Use)
A. Sub tense bar 1. To determine difference in elevation between points
B. Sextant 2. To determine horizontal distance
C. Tangent clinometers 3. To measure angles
D. Range finder 4. To establish right angles
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
39. Which one of the following instruments can be used as clinometers? -
(a) Prism square
(b) Line ranger
(c) Abney level
(d) Optical square
Ans. (c)
40. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans. (b)
UPSC Engineering Services Exam civil engineering Model Test Questions
UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering
1. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is
100 hectares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0
cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?
(a) (1.8 to 2) x 104 m3perday
(b) (2.5 to 2.75) x 104 m3per day
(c) (3.0 to3.25) x l04 m3perday
(d) (3.8 to 4.05) x 104 m3perday
Ans. (c)
2. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?
(a) Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period
(b) Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms
(c) Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically
(d) Effective perceptible water
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the following statements:
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which
1. A canal is carried over the drainage channel.
2. A drainage channel ‘is carried over the canal.
3. Both drainage channel and canal are at the same level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (a)
4. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.
2. By recording the drawdown in installed observation wells at different time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
5. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carring laminar flow of a liquid with ji 1.6 centipoise, the
velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the
axis?
(a) 0.01 N/m2
(b).0125N/m2
(c) 0.0175 N/m2
(d) 0.02 N/m2
Ans. (c)
6. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spill. way. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
(a) 27
(b) 10.5
(c) 15
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
7. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth by 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge?
(a) 12%
(b) 20%
(c) 36%
(d) 48%
Ans. (c)
8. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed 4s, then what is the peak water hammer, pressure in m of water?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 120
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A heterotroph is an organism that obtains
(a) Its cell carbon from an inorganic source
(b) Its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds
(c) Its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter
(d) Its energy from a natural ecosystem
Ans. (c)
10. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
(a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
(b) Magnification pertaining to microscopy
(c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
(d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
Ans. (d)
11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
(a) Uniform for the full width
(b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
(c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
(d) Of an irregular shape
Ans. (c)
12. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry
density?
(a) Silty clay—Clay—Sand—Grave sand clay mixture
(b) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture—Silty clay—Clay
(c) Clay—Silty clay—Sand— Gravel sand clay mixture
(d) Sand—Gravel sand clay mixture— Clay—Silty clay
Ans. (c)
13. Consider the following statements:
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements liven above is correct?
(a). 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below,
the lists;
List-I (Speed) List-II (Application)
A. Space mean speed 1. Road conditions studies
B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation?
(a) Driving a drift through the tunne1
(b) ‘Blow in’ method
(c) ‘Blow out’ method
(d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’ methods
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails?
(a) Wave theory
(b) Percussion theory
(c) Drag theory
(d) Reversal theory
Ans. (d)
17. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 2° curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of 1 in 200?
(a) 1 in 250
(b) 1 in 238
(c) I in 209
(d) I in 198
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is not correct for container ports?
(a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Overall transit time is less
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo
(d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling area
Ans. (b)
19. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted soil
(b) Geomembrane
(c) Geotexile
(d) Geocomposite
Ans. (a)
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Air Pollution) List-II (Impact on Human Health)
A. Particulates 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
B. Carbon monoxide 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract
C. Sulphur oxides 3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, headache etc.
D. Photochemical oxidants 4. Causes respiratory illness
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
21. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
(a) Looping
(b) Inversion
(c) Coning
(d) Lofting
Ans. (d)
22. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?
(a) 80—100 dB
(b) 101—150 dB
(c) 51—70 dB
(d) 40—50 dB
Ans. (c)
23. A rectangular channel 3 wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is .l m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly)?
(a) 0.3 N/m2
(b) 0.15 N/m2
(c) 3.0 N/m2
(d) 1.5 N/m2
Ans. (d)
24. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale of 1: 100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3 /s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype of what magnitude?
(a) 102 m3 /s
(b) 103 m3 /s
(c) 104 m3 /s
(d) 105 m3 /s
Ans. (d)
25. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1: 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?
(a) 15.6kN
(b) 25.3kN
(c) 78kN
(d) 90kN
Ans. (c)
26. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radial distance, measured from the centre?
(a) 0.50R
(b) 0.71R
(c) 0.67 R
(d) 0.29 R
Ans. (b)
27. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s-1. The upstream depth is
2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.3
(c) 2.3
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
28. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge
(perimeter width)?
(a) 1.0 m2/s
(b) 1.4 m2/s
(c) 2.0 m2/s
(d) 2.8 m2/s
Ans. (d)
29. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a
discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the
Froude number of the flow?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6
Ans. (b)
30. Consider the following statements associated with groynes:
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of
particles that constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
31. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
(a) 5.5 m/s
(b) 11.2 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 9m/s
Ans. (a)
32. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate?
(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above MS.L.
Ans. (b)
The following questions consists of two statements , Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions choose any of the following four responses
a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true and reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.
33. Assertion (A): A discrete particle (of diameter d0) settling in a circular sedimentation
tank follows a parabolic path.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0)
in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.
Ans. (a)
34. Assertion (A): Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting
Unconfined compression test.
Reason (R): The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for dry
and saturated sands, in drained condition.
Ans. (d)
35. Assertion (A): Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the structure is difficult.
Ans. (b)
36. Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil
in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 110° C.
Reason (R): The free water, absorbed water and structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 110° C.
Ans. (c)
37. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on
the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above
the sea level are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and
the lighthouse?
(a) 29.8 km
(b) 31.1 km
(c) 31.9 km
(d) 33.2 km
Ans. (b)
38. Match List-I with List-il and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists;
List-I (Instrument) List-II (Use)
A. Sub tense bar 1. To determine difference in elevation between points
B. Sextant 2. To determine horizontal distance
C. Tangent clinometers 3. To measure angles
D. Range finder 4. To establish right angles
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
39. Which one of the following instruments can be used as clinometers? -
(a) Prism square
(b) Line ranger
(c) Abney level
(d) Optical square
Ans. (c)
40. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans. (b)
Friday, April 29, 2011
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
Saturday, January 29, 2011
Electrical Impedance Resistance Conductance Sample Questions
Electrical Impedance Resistance Conductance Sample Questions
Current and resistance MCQ Quiz
1. A cycle of ac wave can be represented by
(a) ח radians
(b) 2 ח radians
(c) 90^
(d) None of these
Ans : b
2. The relationship between the frequency of ac wave and the periodic time is given by
(a) f = T
(b) f = 1/T
(c) f = 1/T2
(d) f = 1/T2
(e) Ans : b
3. DC power is given by
(a) VI cosф
(b) VI sinф
(c) VI
(d) IR
Ans : C
4 Capacitive reactance of the purely capacitive circuit is
(a) Xc= ωC
(b) Xc=1/ωC
(c) Xc=ω/C
(d) Xc=ω/C
Ans : b
5. A capacitive circuit of 50µF and of negligible resistance is connected across a 300 V.
50 Hz, single phase supply. The rms value of current drawn by the circuit is
(a) 4.72A
(b) 6A
(c) 16.68A
(d) 59.44A
Ans : a
6. The average power drawn by an inductive circuit given by
(a) P= ½ Emax Lmax
(b) P= Emax Lmax COS Ø
(c) P = ½ Emax Lmax COS Ø
(d) P = ½ E I COS Ø
Ans : c
7.The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 150 sin (2п30t ) the amplitude and frequency of the ac wave is respectively equal to,
(a) 150 √2; 30
(b) 150; 60
(c) 150; 30
(d) 150√2; 60
Ans : c
8. Kirchhoff’s second law can be algebraically represented as
(a) ΣLR +ΣE ΣLR
(b) LR+E=0
(c) ΣLR=0
(d) ΣL=0
Ans : a
9. If the maximum current of half wave rectified wave is IMAX, then its rms value is
Given by
(a) 1.5Imax
(b) Imax /ח
(c) 0.707Imax
(d) 1.637 Imax
Ans : a
10. A sinusoidal voltage wave shape represented by 250 sin (2 ח X 50 t) .Find the
maximum value
(a) 250/2
(b) 50
(c) 250
(d) 250/ ח
Ans : c
11. The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 100 sin (2п30t ).
RMS value of current is
(a) 77A
(b) 70.7A
(c) 707A
(d) 1A
Ans : b
12. The rms value of voltage for ac sine wave terms of its maximum value, Emax is
(a) EMax /ח
(b) 0.637Emax
(c) 0.707Emax
(d) 0.5Emax
Ans : c
13. A series ac circuit consisting of a resistor of 10 ohm and inductance of 0.2 Henry is connected across a single phase, 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10.2 ohm
(b) 63.65 ohm
(c) 32.98 ohm
(d) None
Ans : b
14. Power in a pure inductive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
15 Power in a pure capacitive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
16. If the maximum value of current of sine Imax, its average value is
given by,
(a)0.707 Imax
(b) 0.637 Imax
(c)Imax / ח
(d)0
Ans : a
17. Resistance of 8 ohm is connected with an inductance of L Henry. The current flowing in the circuit 15 A, when 230 V 50 Hz is applied across it. The value of inductance is
(a) 0.0208 H
(b) 0.123 H
(c) 0.0416 H
(d) 0.416 H
Ans : c
18. An alternating voltage, V= Vmax sinωt is applied to a purely capacitive circuit of C
Farads. The charging current in the circuit the circuit is given by
(a) I= cV
(b) I= C dV/dt
(c) I= C dI/dt
(d)I =Emax/ωc
Ans : b
19. Capacitive reactance of the above circuit is expressed as,
(a) Xc= ωc
(b) Xc = 1/ ωc
(c) Xc = ω/c
(d) Xc = c/ω
Ans : b
20. A resistor and inductor are connected in series across a voltage of V volts. The voltage across the resistor and inductor are 100V and 190 V respectively. The magnitude of applied voltage V will be,
(a) 214.71 V
(b) 190 V
(c) 100 V
(d) None of the above
Ans : a
21. A resistance of 5 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance of 795.4 µF. the
circuit is connected across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The power factor of this
circuit is,
(a) 0.78 lagging
(b) 0.67 lagging
(c) 0.78 lagging
(d) 0.82 lagging
Ans : c
22. The resistance of the coil A and B are 4 ohm and 1.75 ohm, respectively. Their
reactance’s are 3 ohm and 1.785 ohm respectively. These two coils are connected in
series across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The current in the circuit will be
(a) 52.68 A
(b) 30.75 A
(c) 65.88 A
(d) 45.92 A
Ans : b
23. The capacitive reactance of an ac circuit is 5 ohm. The capacitance of the circuit will
be,
(a) 318.31 µF
(b) 0.2 µF
(c) 1273. 24 µF
(d) 636.62 µF
Ans : d
24. In a series RC circuit, the voltage drop across the resistance and capacitive reactance
are respectively, 150 V and 120 V. the power factor of this circuit will be,
(a) 0.8 leading
(b) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.781 leading
(d) 0.781 lagging
Ans :c
25. An ac circuit consisting of an inductance of 50 mH is connected across a 230 V 60
Hz supply. The RMS value of current flowing through the circuit is
(a) 4.6 A
(b) 12.2 A
(c) 24.4 A
(d) None of these
Ans : b
26. The capacitive reactance of a circuit is 5 ohm, when the voltage applied and its frequency is 200 V and 50 Hz respectively. If the frequency of the applied voltage is reduced to 30Hz, the capacitive reactance of the circuit will be,
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 8. 33 ohm
(c) 8. Ohm
(d) 3 ohm
Ans : b
27. A purely capacitive circuit connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply draws 10 A. If the
capacitance of the circuit and the frequency of the applied voltage are both reduced to
half, the current drawn will be
(a) 10 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 40
(d) 2.5 A
Ans : d
28. A resistance of 15 ohm, an inductance of 0.05 H and capacitance of 90µF are
connected in series. The impedance of the circuit, when connected across supply of
230 V, 50Hz is
(a) 24. 73 ohm
(b) 19. 92 ohm
(c) 22. 73 ohm
(d) 29. 54 ohm
Ans : a
29. A current of 5 A leading its applied voltage by 90° is flowing in an ac circuit on the
application of single phase, 230 V 50 Hz supply. The parameters of the circuit are
(a) 69. 2 µF
(b) 46. ohm
(c) 69.2 mH
(d) None of these
Ans : a
30. Unit of magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) Am
(b) m/A
(c) A/m
(d) 1/Am
Ans : c
31. Which is the correct expression?
(a) B= φ.A
(b) φ= B.A
(c) B=A/ φ
(d) φ= B/A
Ans : b
32. Resistance of electrical circuit can be expressed as
(a) ) ρA/L
(b) ρL/A
(c) ρ/AL
(d) L/ρA
Ans : b
33. Reluctance of magnetic circuit can be expressed as
(a) )µL/A
(b) L/µA
(c) µA/L
(d) A/µL
Ans : b
34. Which concept is correct in magnetic circuit?
(a) ) flux flows in circuit
(b) Energy is needed till flux flow
(c) Reluctance independent of flux
(d) Flux flow due to MMF
Ans : d
35. Relation between total flux, useful flux and leakage flux is
(a) ) φT = φI- φ
(b ) φT = φ- φI
(c ) φT = φ+ φI
(d) φT = φI.φ
Ans : c
36. Leakage factor is expressed as
(a) φI= φ
(b ) φT= φI
(c ) φT= φ
(d) φ/φT
Ans : c
37. Imaginary lines around the magnet is called as
(a) Reluctance
(b) Flux
(c) Resistance
(d) Current
Ans : b
38. Expression for dynamically induced emf is given as
(a) BIv cos θ
(b) BIv sin θ
(c) BIv
(d) BIvθ
Ans : b
39. Change in linkage when conductor is stationary is called as _________ induced emf.
(a) Mutual
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : d
40. Induced emf by the movement of the conductor in magnetic filed is called induced emf.
(a) Mutually
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : c
Current and resistance MCQ Quiz
1. A cycle of ac wave can be represented by
(a) ח radians
(b) 2 ח radians
(c) 90^
(d) None of these
Ans : b
2. The relationship between the frequency of ac wave and the periodic time is given by
(a) f = T
(b) f = 1/T
(c) f = 1/T2
(d) f = 1/T2
(e) Ans : b
3. DC power is given by
(a) VI cosф
(b) VI sinф
(c) VI
(d) IR
Ans : C
4 Capacitive reactance of the purely capacitive circuit is
(a) Xc= ωC
(b) Xc=1/ωC
(c) Xc=ω/C
(d) Xc=ω/C
Ans : b
5. A capacitive circuit of 50µF and of negligible resistance is connected across a 300 V.
50 Hz, single phase supply. The rms value of current drawn by the circuit is
(a) 4.72A
(b) 6A
(c) 16.68A
(d) 59.44A
Ans : a
6. The average power drawn by an inductive circuit given by
(a) P= ½ Emax Lmax
(b) P= Emax Lmax COS Ø
(c) P = ½ Emax Lmax COS Ø
(d) P = ½ E I COS Ø
Ans : c
7.The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 150 sin (2п30t ) the amplitude and frequency of the ac wave is respectively equal to,
(a) 150 √2; 30
(b) 150; 60
(c) 150; 30
(d) 150√2; 60
Ans : c
8. Kirchhoff’s second law can be algebraically represented as
(a) ΣLR +ΣE ΣLR
(b) LR+E=0
(c) ΣLR=0
(d) ΣL=0
Ans : a
9. If the maximum current of half wave rectified wave is IMAX, then its rms value is
Given by
(a) 1.5Imax
(b) Imax /ח
(c) 0.707Imax
(d) 1.637 Imax
Ans : a
10. A sinusoidal voltage wave shape represented by 250 sin (2 ח X 50 t) .Find the
maximum value
(a) 250/2
(b) 50
(c) 250
(d) 250/ ח
Ans : c
11. The instantaneous value of current in ac circuit is represented by 100 sin (2п30t ).
RMS value of current is
(a) 77A
(b) 70.7A
(c) 707A
(d) 1A
Ans : b
12. The rms value of voltage for ac sine wave terms of its maximum value, Emax is
(a) EMax /ח
(b) 0.637Emax
(c) 0.707Emax
(d) 0.5Emax
Ans : c
13. A series ac circuit consisting of a resistor of 10 ohm and inductance of 0.2 Henry is connected across a single phase, 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10.2 ohm
(b) 63.65 ohm
(c) 32.98 ohm
(d) None
Ans : b
14. Power in a pure inductive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
15 Power in a pure capacitive circuit is
(a) VI cosф watts
(b) VI sinф watts
(c) 1 watts
(d) 0 watts
Ans : d
16. If the maximum value of current of sine Imax, its average value is
given by,
(a)0.707 Imax
(b) 0.637 Imax
(c)Imax / ח
(d)0
Ans : a
17. Resistance of 8 ohm is connected with an inductance of L Henry. The current flowing in the circuit 15 A, when 230 V 50 Hz is applied across it. The value of inductance is
(a) 0.0208 H
(b) 0.123 H
(c) 0.0416 H
(d) 0.416 H
Ans : c
18. An alternating voltage, V= Vmax sinωt is applied to a purely capacitive circuit of C
Farads. The charging current in the circuit the circuit is given by
(a) I= cV
(b) I= C dV/dt
(c) I= C dI/dt
(d)I =Emax/ωc
Ans : b
19. Capacitive reactance of the above circuit is expressed as,
(a) Xc= ωc
(b) Xc = 1/ ωc
(c) Xc = ω/c
(d) Xc = c/ω
Ans : b
20. A resistor and inductor are connected in series across a voltage of V volts. The voltage across the resistor and inductor are 100V and 190 V respectively. The magnitude of applied voltage V will be,
(a) 214.71 V
(b) 190 V
(c) 100 V
(d) None of the above
Ans : a
21. A resistance of 5 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance of 795.4 µF. the
circuit is connected across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The power factor of this
circuit is,
(a) 0.78 lagging
(b) 0.67 lagging
(c) 0.78 lagging
(d) 0.82 lagging
Ans : c
22. The resistance of the coil A and B are 4 ohm and 1.75 ohm, respectively. Their
reactance’s are 3 ohm and 1.785 ohm respectively. These two coils are connected in
series across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The current in the circuit will be
(a) 52.68 A
(b) 30.75 A
(c) 65.88 A
(d) 45.92 A
Ans : b
23. The capacitive reactance of an ac circuit is 5 ohm. The capacitance of the circuit will
be,
(a) 318.31 µF
(b) 0.2 µF
(c) 1273. 24 µF
(d) 636.62 µF
Ans : d
24. In a series RC circuit, the voltage drop across the resistance and capacitive reactance
are respectively, 150 V and 120 V. the power factor of this circuit will be,
(a) 0.8 leading
(b) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.781 leading
(d) 0.781 lagging
Ans :c
25. An ac circuit consisting of an inductance of 50 mH is connected across a 230 V 60
Hz supply. The RMS value of current flowing through the circuit is
(a) 4.6 A
(b) 12.2 A
(c) 24.4 A
(d) None of these
Ans : b
26. The capacitive reactance of a circuit is 5 ohm, when the voltage applied and its frequency is 200 V and 50 Hz respectively. If the frequency of the applied voltage is reduced to 30Hz, the capacitive reactance of the circuit will be,
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 8. 33 ohm
(c) 8. Ohm
(d) 3 ohm
Ans : b
27. A purely capacitive circuit connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply draws 10 A. If the
capacitance of the circuit and the frequency of the applied voltage are both reduced to
half, the current drawn will be
(a) 10 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 40
(d) 2.5 A
Ans : d
28. A resistance of 15 ohm, an inductance of 0.05 H and capacitance of 90µF are
connected in series. The impedance of the circuit, when connected across supply of
230 V, 50Hz is
(a) 24. 73 ohm
(b) 19. 92 ohm
(c) 22. 73 ohm
(d) 29. 54 ohm
Ans : a
29. A current of 5 A leading its applied voltage by 90° is flowing in an ac circuit on the
application of single phase, 230 V 50 Hz supply. The parameters of the circuit are
(a) 69. 2 µF
(b) 46. ohm
(c) 69.2 mH
(d) None of these
Ans : a
30. Unit of magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) Am
(b) m/A
(c) A/m
(d) 1/Am
Ans : c
31. Which is the correct expression?
(a) B= φ.A
(b) φ= B.A
(c) B=A/ φ
(d) φ= B/A
Ans : b
32. Resistance of electrical circuit can be expressed as
(a) ) ρA/L
(b) ρL/A
(c) ρ/AL
(d) L/ρA
Ans : b
33. Reluctance of magnetic circuit can be expressed as
(a) )µL/A
(b) L/µA
(c) µA/L
(d) A/µL
Ans : b
34. Which concept is correct in magnetic circuit?
(a) ) flux flows in circuit
(b) Energy is needed till flux flow
(c) Reluctance independent of flux
(d) Flux flow due to MMF
Ans : d
35. Relation between total flux, useful flux and leakage flux is
(a) ) φT = φI- φ
(b ) φT = φ- φI
(c ) φT = φ+ φI
(d) φT = φI.φ
Ans : c
36. Leakage factor is expressed as
(a) φI= φ
(b ) φT= φI
(c ) φT= φ
(d) φ/φT
Ans : c
37. Imaginary lines around the magnet is called as
(a) Reluctance
(b) Flux
(c) Resistance
(d) Current
Ans : b
38. Expression for dynamically induced emf is given as
(a) BIv cos θ
(b) BIv sin θ
(c) BIv
(d) BIvθ
Ans : b
39. Change in linkage when conductor is stationary is called as _________ induced emf.
(a) Mutual
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : d
40. Induced emf by the movement of the conductor in magnetic filed is called induced emf.
(a) Mutually
(b) Self
(c) Dynamically
(d) Statically
Ans : c
Friday, January 14, 2011
Solved electrical engineering for IES
Solved electrical engineering for IES
SAMPLE PAPER
1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
plane becomes ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field
Ans:c
2. Tesla is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment
Ans:b
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
Ans:b
4. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on?
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
Ans:c
5. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
Ans:a
6. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
Ans:a
7. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)4.0cm
(d) 1.0cm
Ans:c
8. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
Ans:d
9. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
Ans:b
10. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
Ans:a
11. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
12. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(a)0.2Tesla
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
Ans:a
13. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
Ans:d
14. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Ans:b
15. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
Ans:a
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) √(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) √(v/B)
(d)v/B
Ans:d
17. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
Ans:c
18. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans:c
19. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
Ans:c
20. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
Ans:c
21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
Ans:c
22. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
Ans:b
23. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
Ans:a
24. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
Ans:b
25. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be?
(a)2:1
(b)1:4
(c)4:1
(d)1:2
Ans:b
26. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
Ans:b
27. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
Ans:c
28. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
Ans:b
29. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
Ans:b
30. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
(a)3µ/2∏
(b)µ/∏
(c)√3µ/2∏
(d)µ/2∏
Ans:a
31. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(a)2cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Ans:b
32. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(a)qB/m∏
(b) qB/2m∏
(c)qBE/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
Ans:b
33. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
Ans:c
34. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(a)4B
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
Ans:a
35.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
Ans:b
36. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(a)2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans:a
37 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
Ans:b
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Ans:b
39. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c)Ni/√A
(d) N2Ai
Ans:a
40. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c
41. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b
42. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
Ans:b
SAMPLE PAPER
1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
plane becomes ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field
Ans:c
2. Tesla is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment
Ans:b
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
Ans:b
4. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on?
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
Ans:c
5. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
Ans:a
6. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
Ans:a
7. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)4.0cm
(d) 1.0cm
Ans:c
8. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
Ans:d
9. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
Ans:b
10. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
Ans:a
11. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
12. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(a)0.2Tesla
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
Ans:a
13. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
Ans:d
14. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Ans:b
15. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
Ans:a
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) √(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) √(v/B)
(d)v/B
Ans:d
17. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
Ans:c
18. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans:c
19. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
Ans:c
20. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
Ans:c
21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
Ans:c
22. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
Ans:b
23. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
Ans:a
24. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
Ans:b
25. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be?
(a)2:1
(b)1:4
(c)4:1
(d)1:2
Ans:b
26. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
Ans:b
27. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
Ans:c
28. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
Ans:b
29. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
Ans:b
30. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
(a)3µ/2∏
(b)µ/∏
(c)√3µ/2∏
(d)µ/2∏
Ans:a
31. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(a)2cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Ans:b
32. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(a)qB/m∏
(b) qB/2m∏
(c)qBE/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
Ans:b
33. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
Ans:c
34. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(a)4B
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
Ans:a
35.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
Ans:b
36. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(a)2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans:a
37 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
Ans:b
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Ans:b
39. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c)Ni/√A
(d) N2Ai
Ans:a
40. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c
41. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b
42. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
Ans:b
Thursday, January 13, 2011
electronics MCQ Objective solved questions for IES
electronics MCQ Objective solved questions for IES
Electronics engineering objective type questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Electronics engineering For SAIL GAIL ONGC IES
Engg Multiple Choice Questions: IES ELECTRONICS
1 Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
2 Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
3. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
4. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
5Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
6. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
7 One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
8 The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
9.The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
12. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
13 ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
14.. An operational amplifier is a
S1: Direct coupled high gain amplifier
S2: Device to perform linear operation
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
15. The input impedance of the operational amplifier is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Very high but not infinite
d) Very small
Ans : (c)
16. Power supply rejection ratio of an OPAMP should be
a) Ideally unity
b) Zero
c) As small as possible
d) As large as possible
Ans : (d)
17. The ideal value of CMRR is
a) 1
b) 0
c) -∞
d) ∞
Ans : (d)
18. To get very high input impedance ________________ is also used as an isolation amplifier.
a) Boost strapping circuit
b) Darlington pair
c) Push pull circuit
d) Emitter follower
Ans : (a)
19. Carrier amplifiers are characterized by
a) Low gain
b) Medium gain
c) High gain
d) Drift
Ans : (c)
20. DC amplifiers are generally
S1: Negative feedback type
S2: Positive feedback type
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
21. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against
a) Grounding
b) Leakage currents
c) Stray field
d) Shock
Ans : (b)
22 __________is the recording of the bio potentials generated by the movement of the eye ball.
a) Electro oculograph
b) Electro retinograph
c) Apexcardiograph
d) Ballistograph
Ans : (b)
23. The heart sounds are recorded by
a) Electrocardiography
b) Endoscope
c) Phono cardiograph
d) Angio cardiograph
Ans : (c)
24.. Type of laser used in photo chemical process is
a) CO2
b) Nd-YAG
c) He-Ne
d) Excimer lasers
Ans : (c)
25.. MRI makes use of the _____ region of the electromagnetic spectra to provide an image.
a) Ultra Violet
b) Radio Frequency
c) Infra Red
d) Ultra High frequency
Ans : (b)
26.. (A) Spin Density – (1) Signal is proportional to no. of nuclei present
(B) Spin lattice – (2) Longitudinal relaxation time
(C)Spin-spin – (3) Transverse relaxation time
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (a)
27.. (A) A mode – (1) Reflected echoes are depicted as dots
(B) B mode – (2) unidirectional graphic representation
(C)M /T-M mode – (3) Reflected echoes are depicted as vertical spikes
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (c)
28.. Ultra sound is a form of energy which consists of
S1: Mechanical vibrations of high frequency
S2: Elecrical vibrations of high frequency
a) S1 is true
b) S2 is true
c) S1 and S2 are true
d) S1 and S2 are false
Ans : (a)
29.. CT scanner is highly helpful in
a) Bone tumours
b) Thorax scanning
c) Neck scanning
d) Brain scanning
Ans : (d)
30. The first medical application of LASER was in
a) Gastrology
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Opthalmology
d) Cardiography
Ans : (c)
31. In D.C. defibrillator, a pulse width of 5 to 10 msec duration is generated by means of
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) IC 555
d) Capacitor discharge
Ans : (d)
32.. Micro shock may occur due to flow of
a) 1 ampere current across body surface
b) Few milli ampere current across the cardiac muscles
c) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface for 1 minute
d) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface
Ans : (b)
33. The use of super conducting magnets in MRI is to obtain
a) Signals from surface tissue
b) High R.F. field
c) High strength gradient fields
d) High strength magnetic fields
Ans ; (d)
Electronics engineering objective type questions
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Electronics engineering For SAIL GAIL ONGC IES
Engg Multiple Choice Questions: IES ELECTRONICS
1 Selenium photo cells are sensitive to the visible spectrum of
a) 400 – 700 mµ
b) 350 – 700 mµ
c) 300 – 700 mµ
d) 450 – 700 mµ
Ans : (c)
2 Respiratory volume is measured using
a) Myograph
b) Pneumograph
c) Spiro meter
d) Goniometer
Ans : (b)
3. Match the following
1. Sensitivity A. Ability to detect very small change
2. Stability B. Ability to produce constant output
3. Precision C. Measure of reproducibility
4. Accuracy D. Closeness to true value
a) 1- B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C
c) 1- C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D
d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D
Ans : (d)
4. Piezo electric materials have ___________ resistivity
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Null
Ans : (c)
5Dummy gauge is mounted on the opposite arm of the active gauge to cancel output differentials due to
a) Temperature variation of resistance
b) Pressure variation of resistance
c) pH concentration variation
d) Change in blood flow
Ans : (a)
6. For fiber optic sensors,
a) Single mode transmission is used
b) Multimode transmission is used
c) Both single mode and multimode transmission is used
d) Transmission is not used
Ans (a)
7 One of the combination of materials used for optical fibers are ___________
a) Copper core and glass cladding
b) Glass core and aluminum cladding
c) Glass core and plastic cladding
d) Plastic core and glass cladding
Ans (c)
8 The optical sensors may be classified as _________
a) Intensity and intrinsic types
b) Interferometric and extrinsic types
c) Intensity or intrinsic type and Interferometric or extrinsic types
d) Only extrinsic type
Ans (c)
9.The gauge factor is given as
a) ∆R/R
∆I/I
b) ∆I/I
∆R/R
c) ∆R/R
∆D/D
d) ∆D/D
∆R/R
Ans : (a)
10. The gauge factor G and the poisons ratio µ are related as
a) G = 1+µ
b) G = µ
c) G = 1+2µ
d) G = 1+µ /2
Ans : (a)
11. In variable capacitance transducer, C=
a) kξo/Ad
b) kξoA/d
c) kξod/A
d) Aξo/kd
Ans : (b)
12. Inductance of a coil is given by L =
a) N2R
b) N2 + R
c) N2 - R
d) N2 / R
Ans : (d)
13 ______________ is called as linistor when it provides a linear change in resistance with respect to temperature
a) Thermistor
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermometer
d) Thermo resistive transducer
Ans : (a)
14.. An operational amplifier is a
S1: Direct coupled high gain amplifier
S2: Device to perform linear operation
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
15. The input impedance of the operational amplifier is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Very high but not infinite
d) Very small
Ans : (c)
16. Power supply rejection ratio of an OPAMP should be
a) Ideally unity
b) Zero
c) As small as possible
d) As large as possible
Ans : (d)
17. The ideal value of CMRR is
a) 1
b) 0
c) -∞
d) ∞
Ans : (d)
18. To get very high input impedance ________________ is also used as an isolation amplifier.
a) Boost strapping circuit
b) Darlington pair
c) Push pull circuit
d) Emitter follower
Ans : (a)
19. Carrier amplifiers are characterized by
a) Low gain
b) Medium gain
c) High gain
d) Drift
Ans : (c)
20. DC amplifiers are generally
S1: Negative feedback type
S2: Positive feedback type
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
21. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against
a) Grounding
b) Leakage currents
c) Stray field
d) Shock
Ans : (b)
22 __________is the recording of the bio potentials generated by the movement of the eye ball.
a) Electro oculograph
b) Electro retinograph
c) Apexcardiograph
d) Ballistograph
Ans : (b)
23. The heart sounds are recorded by
a) Electrocardiography
b) Endoscope
c) Phono cardiograph
d) Angio cardiograph
Ans : (c)
24.. Type of laser used in photo chemical process is
a) CO2
b) Nd-YAG
c) He-Ne
d) Excimer lasers
Ans : (c)
25.. MRI makes use of the _____ region of the electromagnetic spectra to provide an image.
a) Ultra Violet
b) Radio Frequency
c) Infra Red
d) Ultra High frequency
Ans : (b)
26.. (A) Spin Density – (1) Signal is proportional to no. of nuclei present
(B) Spin lattice – (2) Longitudinal relaxation time
(C)Spin-spin – (3) Transverse relaxation time
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (a)
27.. (A) A mode – (1) Reflected echoes are depicted as dots
(B) B mode – (2) unidirectional graphic representation
(C)M /T-M mode – (3) Reflected echoes are depicted as vertical spikes
a) A-1, B-2, C-3
b) A-2,B-3,C-1
c) A-3,B-1,C-2
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
Ans : (c)
28.. Ultra sound is a form of energy which consists of
S1: Mechanical vibrations of high frequency
S2: Elecrical vibrations of high frequency
a) S1 is true
b) S2 is true
c) S1 and S2 are true
d) S1 and S2 are false
Ans : (a)
29.. CT scanner is highly helpful in
a) Bone tumours
b) Thorax scanning
c) Neck scanning
d) Brain scanning
Ans : (d)
30. The first medical application of LASER was in
a) Gastrology
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Opthalmology
d) Cardiography
Ans : (c)
31. In D.C. defibrillator, a pulse width of 5 to 10 msec duration is generated by means of
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) IC 555
d) Capacitor discharge
Ans : (d)
32.. Micro shock may occur due to flow of
a) 1 ampere current across body surface
b) Few milli ampere current across the cardiac muscles
c) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface for 1 minute
d) 5 milli ampere current across the body surface
Ans : (b)
33. The use of super conducting magnets in MRI is to obtain
a) Signals from surface tissue
b) High R.F. field
c) High strength gradient fields
d) High strength magnetic fields
Ans ; (d)
Thursday, December 16, 2010
objective civil engineering questions
objective civil engineering questions
civil engineering objective questions for exams
Based on UPSC IES 2010
Objective Type Questions & Answers In Civil Engineering in MCQ Type
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2.
A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
10.
A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be .
A RA = —10 kN and RC = —15 kN
B. RA =10kN and RC=—55 kN
C. RA =—15kN and RC=—10kN
D. RA =15kN ànd RCc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
45.
For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘Ls and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length Lh, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is
49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero
ANSWERS:
Source: http://exams.qoney.com/upsc-ies-civil-engineering-solved-paper-2010-part-1/
civil engineering objective questions for exams
Based on UPSC IES 2010
Objective Type Questions & Answers In Civil Engineering in MCQ Type
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2.
A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
10.
A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be .
A RA = —10 kN and RC = —15 kN
B. RA =10kN and RC=—55 kN
C. RA =—15kN and RC=—10kN
D. RA =15kN ànd RCc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
45.
For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘Ls and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length Lh, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is
49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero
ANSWERS:
| 1 | A |
| 2 | D |
| 3 | D |
| 4 | C |
| 5 | B |
| 6 | D |
| 7 | D |
| 8 | B |
| 9 | C |
| 10 | C |
| 11 | D |
| 12 | C |
| 13 | D |
| 14 | D |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | A |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | C |
| 19 | C |
| 20 | C |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | B |
| 23 | C |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | A |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | C |
| 28 | B |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | D |
| 31 | A |
| 32 | D |
| 33 | A |
| 34 | A |
| 35 | # |
| 36 | A |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | C |
| 39 | B |
| 40 | A |
| 41 | B |
| 42 | D |
| 43 | D |
| 44 | D |
| 45 | D |
| 46 | B |
| 47 | C |
| 48 | C |
| 49 | C |
| 50 | B |
Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering
Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering
based on IES 2010 questions
MCQ Civil Engineering quiz
1. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn2
B. 0.75 kN/ rn2
C. 1.35 kN/ rn2
D. 1.50 kN/ rn2
2. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
3.The duration of any activity in case of a PERT programme is calculated as a weighted average of three time estimates namely the optimistic time to , the pessimistic time tp and the most probable time tm which is given as
4. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
5. Consider the following statements of network:
1. Only one time estimate is required for each activity.
2. Three time estimates for each activity.
3. Time and cost are both controlling factors.
4. It is build-up of event-oriented diagram.
Which of the above statements are correctly applicable to CPM network?
A 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D 3 and 4
6. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
7. A circular shaft which has a diameter of 100 mm is subjected to a torque of 5 kN-m. The shear stress, in N/mm2 , induced in the shaft would be
A160/Π
B.120/Π
C.125/Π
D.80/Π
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type)
A. Single angle in roof trusses
B. Double angles in roof trusses
C. Single I section in columns
D. Double I section in columns
List II
(Recommended
Slenderness ratio)
1. 80 — 150
2. 30—60
3. 100- 180
4. 60 — 120
Codes
A B C D
A 3 4 1 2
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 1 4 2
D.2 1 4 3
9.
10. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
11.
12. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
13. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis :‘
1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero.
2. At ultimate collapse load, the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to form a mechanism.
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both land2
14. The base plate of a roof truss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade fy = 250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area ?
A 30 kN
B. 67.5 kN
C. 90 kN
D. 120 kN
15. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in
bolted joints of tension members is
A 16 times the diameter of the bolt
B. 32 times the diameter of the bolt
C..16 times the thickness of the plate
D. 32 times the thickness of the plate
16. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone she takes no loss than 5 minutes for a call but sometimes as much as an hour. 15 minutes calls are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If the daughter’s calls were to be represented as an activity in PERT project, the expected duration of each phone call is?
A 89/6 minutes
B. 101/6 minutes
C.113/6 minutes
D.125/6 minutes
17
18.A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a concentrated load at mid span. If Mp, is
the plastic moment capacity of the beam, the value of collapse load will be
A. 12Mp/L
B. 8Mp/L
C 6Mp/L
D. 4Mp/L
19. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Shape factor
2. Length of the beam
3. Type of loading
4. Yield strength of material
Which of these affect the influence length of
plastic hinge in a beam?
A. 1 only .
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
21
22. Consider the following statements:
1. PERT is activity-oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
2. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
3. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
23
24.PERT calculator yield a project length of 60 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks. Probability factor, corresponding to 95% probability is 1.647; then the number of weeks required to complete, and project with a probability of 95% is,
A 60.94
B. 62.94
C. 64.94
D. 66.94
25. For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12; the factor of safety in bending stress is 1.5. If the allowable stress is increased by 20% for wind or ,earthquake loads, then the load factor is
A 1.10
B. 1.25
C. 1.35
D 1.40
26. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is driven. The net sectional area of the plate is
A 1800 mm2 .
B. 2805 mm2
C. 2820 mm2
D 3242 mm2
27. At a section along the span of a welded plate girder, in which the web is spliced, the bending moment, at a section is M. The girder is comprised of top flange; web and bottom flange plates all of equal areas. The share of the bending moment taken by splice plates would be
A M
B. M/L
C. M/7
D M/13
28. Consider the following stipulations in designing a laced column
1. Single lacing systems on opposite planes shall preferably be in the same direction so that one is the shadow of the other.
2. Lacing bar should be a flat section.
3. The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars for compression shall not exceed l80.
4. Laced compression members are to be provided with tie plates at ends.
Which of the above observations is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4,
D. 1 and 4
29. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
30
31. Consider the following statements:
Entrainment of air in concrete is done so as to
1. Increase the workability.
2. Increase the strength.
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and thawing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
32. Consider the following statements is work breakdown structure
1. It is a graphical representation of entire programme.
2. The Top-Down approach to planning is adopted.
3. The Down-Top approach to planning is adopted.
4. It is suitable for complex projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
33. If P is the percentage of water required for determination of normal consistency of cement, then percentage of water to be added for determination of initial setting time is
A. 0.70P
B. 0.75 P
C. Q.80 P
D. 0.85 P
34. Consider the following statements regarding the. slope of cost-time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by ‘crash cost not divided by crash time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B.2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength of concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
Which of the above statements.is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D.3 only
36. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is
500 kN. The ultimate collapse load of the column is
A 500 kN
B. 662.5 kN
C, 750kN
D.1100 kN
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher. strength than a lean concrete mix since it has more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
38. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm2 . and 300 kg/cm2 . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
39. Consider . the following statements:
Admixtures are added to concrete to
1. Increase its strength.
2. Reduce heat of hydration.
3. Delay the setting of cement.
4. Reduce water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4.
40. A building contractor discovers from his record that in the last 200 slab castings his mixer machine broke down 21 times. During each breakdown, he had to pay on an average about Rs. 2,500 for idle labour. A standby mixer machine, if hired on the day of slab casting, would cost him Rs. 200 per day. The expected loss is more than the mitigation expense of hiring the mixer by
A Rs. 151.50
B. Rs. 241.50
C. Rs. 262.50
D. Rs. 283.50
41. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
42
The distribution factors for members AE and AC of the box section are
A 0.5 and 0.5
B. 0.6 and 0.4
C. 0.25 and 0.75
D. 1 and zero
43
44.Consider the following activities:
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Erection of formwork
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of formwork
What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities?
A 1—2—3—4
B.2— 1—4—3
C.2—1—3 —4
D.1—3—2—4
45. Which one of the following is relevant to Activity on Node (AON)?
A. Dummy activities may be many
B. There will be no dummy activities
C. It is used for quite complex project
D. It is easier to associate with time flow of activities
46. Consider the following statements about the
air entraining admixture in concrete:
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only.
47.
The RC slab, simply supported on all edges as in above figure, is subjected to a total UDL of 12 kN/m2. The maximum shear force! unit length along the edge ‘BC’ is
A 16kN
B. 12kN
C. 8kN
D. 30kN
48.
The above figure indicates a project network; the number at each activity represents its normal duration in days. The critical path is along
A 1—2—3—6—7— 8
B. 1—2 —4—5—7 — 8
C. l—2——5—7— 8
D. 1—2—4—6—7 — 8
49.
50
In the above network, the duration of activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of the activities is along
A 1—2—3—5—7—8
B. 1—2—3—6—7—8 .
C. 1—2—4—5—7—8
D. 1—2—3—4—5—7—8
Answers:
Source:http://exams.qoney.com/objective-solved-questions-civil-engineering/
based on IES 2010 questions
MCQ Civil Engineering quiz
1. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn2
B. 0.75 kN/ rn2
C. 1.35 kN/ rn2
D. 1.50 kN/ rn2
2. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
3.The duration of any activity in case of a PERT programme is calculated as a weighted average of three time estimates namely the optimistic time to , the pessimistic time tp and the most probable time tm which is given as
4. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
5. Consider the following statements of network:
1. Only one time estimate is required for each activity.
2. Three time estimates for each activity.
3. Time and cost are both controlling factors.
4. It is build-up of event-oriented diagram.
Which of the above statements are correctly applicable to CPM network?
A 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D 3 and 4
6. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
7. A circular shaft which has a diameter of 100 mm is subjected to a torque of 5 kN-m. The shear stress, in N/mm2 , induced in the shaft would be
A160/Π
B.120/Π
C.125/Π
D.80/Π
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type)
A. Single angle in roof trusses
B. Double angles in roof trusses
C. Single I section in columns
D. Double I section in columns
List II
(Recommended
Slenderness ratio)
1. 80 — 150
2. 30—60
3. 100- 180
4. 60 — 120
Codes
A B C D
A 3 4 1 2
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 1 4 2
D.2 1 4 3
9.
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
11.
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
13. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis :‘
1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero.
2. At ultimate collapse load, the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to form a mechanism.
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both land2
14. The base plate of a roof truss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade fy = 250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area ?
A 30 kN
B. 67.5 kN
C. 90 kN
D. 120 kN
15. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in
bolted joints of tension members is
A 16 times the diameter of the bolt
B. 32 times the diameter of the bolt
C..16 times the thickness of the plate
D. 32 times the thickness of the plate
16. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone she takes no loss than 5 minutes for a call but sometimes as much as an hour. 15 minutes calls are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If the daughter’s calls were to be represented as an activity in PERT project, the expected duration of each phone call is?
A 89/6 minutes
B. 101/6 minutes
C.113/6 minutes
D.125/6 minutes
17
the plastic moment capacity of the beam, the value of collapse load will be
A. 12Mp/L
B. 8Mp/L
C 6Mp/L
D. 4Mp/L
19. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Shape factor
2. Length of the beam
3. Type of loading
4. Yield strength of material
Which of these affect the influence length of
plastic hinge in a beam?
A. 1 only .
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
21
1. PERT is activity-oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
2. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
3. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
23
A 60.94
B. 62.94
C. 64.94
D. 66.94
25. For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12; the factor of safety in bending stress is 1.5. If the allowable stress is increased by 20% for wind or ,earthquake loads, then the load factor is
A 1.10
B. 1.25
C. 1.35
D 1.40
26. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is driven. The net sectional area of the plate is
A 1800 mm2 .
B. 2805 mm2
C. 2820 mm2
D 3242 mm2
27. At a section along the span of a welded plate girder, in which the web is spliced, the bending moment, at a section is M. The girder is comprised of top flange; web and bottom flange plates all of equal areas. The share of the bending moment taken by splice plates would be
A M
B. M/L
C. M/7
D M/13
28. Consider the following stipulations in designing a laced column
1. Single lacing systems on opposite planes shall preferably be in the same direction so that one is the shadow of the other.
2. Lacing bar should be a flat section.
3. The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars for compression shall not exceed l80.
4. Laced compression members are to be provided with tie plates at ends.
Which of the above observations is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4,
D. 1 and 4
29. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
30
31. Consider the following statements:
Entrainment of air in concrete is done so as to
1. Increase the workability.
2. Increase the strength.
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and thawing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
32. Consider the following statements is work breakdown structure
1. It is a graphical representation of entire programme.
2. The Top-Down approach to planning is adopted.
3. The Down-Top approach to planning is adopted.
4. It is suitable for complex projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
33. If P is the percentage of water required for determination of normal consistency of cement, then percentage of water to be added for determination of initial setting time is
A. 0.70P
B. 0.75 P
C. Q.80 P
D. 0.85 P
34. Consider the following statements regarding the. slope of cost-time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by ‘crash cost not divided by crash time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B.2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength of concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
Which of the above statements.is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D.3 only
36. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is
500 kN. The ultimate collapse load of the column is
A 500 kN
B. 662.5 kN
C, 750kN
D.1100 kN
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher. strength than a lean concrete mix since it has more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
38. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm2 . and 300 kg/cm2 . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
39. Consider . the following statements:
Admixtures are added to concrete to
1. Increase its strength.
2. Reduce heat of hydration.
3. Delay the setting of cement.
4. Reduce water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4.
40. A building contractor discovers from his record that in the last 200 slab castings his mixer machine broke down 21 times. During each breakdown, he had to pay on an average about Rs. 2,500 for idle labour. A standby mixer machine, if hired on the day of slab casting, would cost him Rs. 200 per day. The expected loss is more than the mitigation expense of hiring the mixer by
A Rs. 151.50
B. Rs. 241.50
C. Rs. 262.50
D. Rs. 283.50
41. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
42
The distribution factors for members AE and AC of the box section are
A 0.5 and 0.5
B. 0.6 and 0.4
C. 0.25 and 0.75
D. 1 and zero
43
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Erection of formwork
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of formwork
What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities?
A 1—2—3—4
B.2— 1—4—3
C.2—1—3 —4
D.1—3—2—4
45. Which one of the following is relevant to Activity on Node (AON)?
A. Dummy activities may be many
B. There will be no dummy activities
C. It is used for quite complex project
D. It is easier to associate with time flow of activities
46. Consider the following statements about the
air entraining admixture in concrete:
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only.
47.
The RC slab, simply supported on all edges as in above figure, is subjected to a total UDL of 12 kN/m2. The maximum shear force! unit length along the edge ‘BC’ is
A 16kN
B. 12kN
C. 8kN
D. 30kN
48.
The above figure indicates a project network; the number at each activity represents its normal duration in days. The critical path is along
A 1—2—3—6—7— 8
B. 1—2 —4—5—7 — 8
C. l—2——5—7— 8
D. 1—2—4—6—7 — 8
49.
In the above network, the duration of activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of the activities is along
A 1—2—3—5—7—8
B. 1—2—3—6—7—8 .
C. 1—2—4—5—7—8
D. 1—2—3—4—5—7—8
Answers:
| 1 | A |
| 2 | C |
| 3 | B |
| 4 | D |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | B |
| 7 | D |
| 8 | B |
| 9 | D |
| 10 | B |
| 11 | A |
| 12 | B |
| 13 | D |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | D |
| 17 | B |
| 18 | C |
| 19 | C |
| 20 | B |
| 21 | A |
| 22 | D |
| 23 | D |
| 24 | C |
| 25 | D |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | C |
| 28 | D |
| 29 | B |
| 30 | D |
| 31 | C |
| 32 | B |
| 33 | D |
| 34 | C |
| 35 | B |
| 36 | C |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | B |
| 39 | B |
| 40 | # |
| 41 | A |
| 42 | A |
| 43 | D |
| 44 | C |
| 45 | B |
| 46 | A |
| 47 | A |
| 48 | B |
| 49 | C |
| 50 | A |
Source:http://exams.qoney.com/objective-solved-questions-civil-engineering/
Sunday, December 5, 2010
electronics and Communications objective questions
electronics and Communications objective questions
1. When BCC iron is heated, it changes to FCC iron resulting in
(a)contraction -in volume
(b) increase in volume
(c)no change in volume
(d) crack in the material
2. When copper is added to silver in small quantity so as to form an alloy, the resistivity of such an alloy is
(a) equal to the resistivity of copper
(b) equal to the resistivity of silver
(c) greater than the resistivity of copper
(d) in between the resistivity of silver and copper
3. Match List-I (Materials) with List-II (Applications of materials) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Materials) (Applications of materials)
A. Aluminum 1. Current carrying spring
B. Phosphor Bronze 2. Heating element
C. Carbon 3. Commutator brush
D. Ni chrome 4. Telephone chords and trolley wires
Codes:
A B C D
4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
4. When a semiconductor bar is heated at one end, a voltage across the bar is developed. If the heated end is positive, the semiconductor is ?
(a) p-type
(b) n-type
(c) intrinsic
(d) highly degenerate
5. The conductivity of a semiconductor crystal due to any current carrier is NOT proportional to
(a.) mobility of the carrier
(b) effective density of states in the conduction band
(c) electronic charge
(d) surface states in the semiconductor
6. Amplification of ultrasonic waves is possible in a piezoelectric semiconductor under applied electric field. The basic phenomenon involved is known as
(a) Electrostriction
(b) Acousto-optic interaction
(c)Acoustic-electric interaction
(d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
7. Piezoelectric quartz crystal resonators find application where
(a) signal amplification is required
(b) rectification of the signal is required
(c) signal frequency control is required
(d)modulation of signal is required
8. When certain percentage of silicon is added to iron, the resistivity of the iron increase by a factor of 5. If a transformer core is made out of this iron, as compared to the previous value when silicon was not added, the eddy current loss will be
(a) 77%
(b) 80%
(c) 83%
(d) 86%
9. Which of the following are the properties of ferromagnetic domains?
1. Permanent magnetisation
2. Atomic moments in individual domains are all aligned neither parallel to nor perpendicular to one another below Curie point temperature
3. Each domain is magnetically saturated
4. Above Curie temperature, domains disrupt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
10. Match List-I (Insulators) with List-II (Resistivity) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Insulators) (Resistivity)
A. Bakelite 1.105 ohm-cm
B. Window glass 2.109 ohm-cm
C. Pure silica 3.1013 ohm-cm
D; Mica 4. 1017 ohm-cm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
11. Which of the following phenomena is most important when foodstuff is cooked in
a microwave oven?
(a) Resistive Joule heating
(b) Induction heating
(c)Dielectric heating
(d) Radiation heating
12. The frequency dependence of electronic polarizability of a dielectric is obtained by solving the equation:
mx=- ax- 2bx – 2E0 cos wt. Consider the following statements:
In this equation,
1. a is the restoring force constant, the expression for which is obtained from Coulomb’s law
2. m is the combined mass of electrons and nucleus
3. b is the damping constant occurring due to emission of electromagnetic radiation
4 m x term arises due to altered velocity of electrons orbiting the nucleus in presence of field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c)1,2 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
13. The correct sequence of the following in the increasing order of the values of
permittivity is
(a) Air, Vacuum, TaO2 Glass
(b) Air, Vacuum, Glass, TaO2
(c) Vacuum, Air, TaO2 Glass
(d) Vacuum, Air, Glass, TaO2
14. Match List-I (Polarization process) with List-Il (Approximate frequency) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Polarization process) (Approximate frequency)
A. Electronic polarization 1. 102 Hz
B. Ionic polarization 2. 105 Hz
C. Orientation polarization 3. 1013 Hz
D. Space-charge polarization 4. 1015 Hz
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
15. Which material among the following possesses excellent dielectric properties and good reliability for use in making capacitors?
(a)Silicon monoxide
(b) Silicon dioxide
(c) Tin oxide
(d) Chromium oxide
16. The most suitable material for making an LDR (Light dependent resistor) is a semiconductor material having
(a) Eg>> hv
(b) Eg > hv
(c) Eg=hV
(d) Eg<
17. Which one of the following is an essential components of electromechanical
relays?
(a)Graphite rod
(b) LED
(c)An electromagnet
(d) MOSFET
18. In a degenerate semiconductor, the majority carriers are controlled by
(a) Fermi-Dirac statistics
(b) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(c) Bose-Einstein (B-E) statistics
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
19. Fermions are the particles, which obey
(a)Maxwell-Boltzmann’s statistics
(b)Bose-Einstein’s statistics
(c Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(d Pauli’s exclusion principle
20. Excess carriers are generated in a sample of N-type semiconductor by shining
light at one end. The current flow in the sample will be made up of
(a) diffusion flow of carriers
(b) drift flow of carriers
(c) both diffusion and drift flow of carriers
(d) neither diffusion nor drift flow of carriers
Answers :
1 : a
2: c
3: c
4: b
5: d
6: a
7: c
8: b
9: c
10: b
11 : b
12 : b
13: b
14: b
15 : d
16 : d
17 : c
18 : a
19 : d
20: a
1. When BCC iron is heated, it changes to FCC iron resulting in
(a)contraction -in volume
(b) increase in volume
(c)no change in volume
(d) crack in the material
2. When copper is added to silver in small quantity so as to form an alloy, the resistivity of such an alloy is
(a) equal to the resistivity of copper
(b) equal to the resistivity of silver
(c) greater than the resistivity of copper
(d) in between the resistivity of silver and copper
3. Match List-I (Materials) with List-II (Applications of materials) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Materials) (Applications of materials)
A. Aluminum 1. Current carrying spring
B. Phosphor Bronze 2. Heating element
C. Carbon 3. Commutator brush
D. Ni chrome 4. Telephone chords and trolley wires
Codes:
A B C D
4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
4. When a semiconductor bar is heated at one end, a voltage across the bar is developed. If the heated end is positive, the semiconductor is ?
(a) p-type
(b) n-type
(c) intrinsic
(d) highly degenerate
5. The conductivity of a semiconductor crystal due to any current carrier is NOT proportional to
(a.) mobility of the carrier
(b) effective density of states in the conduction band
(c) electronic charge
(d) surface states in the semiconductor
6. Amplification of ultrasonic waves is possible in a piezoelectric semiconductor under applied electric field. The basic phenomenon involved is known as
(a) Electrostriction
(b) Acousto-optic interaction
(c)Acoustic-electric interaction
(d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
7. Piezoelectric quartz crystal resonators find application where
(a) signal amplification is required
(b) rectification of the signal is required
(c) signal frequency control is required
(d)modulation of signal is required
8. When certain percentage of silicon is added to iron, the resistivity of the iron increase by a factor of 5. If a transformer core is made out of this iron, as compared to the previous value when silicon was not added, the eddy current loss will be
(a) 77%
(b) 80%
(c) 83%
(d) 86%
9. Which of the following are the properties of ferromagnetic domains?
1. Permanent magnetisation
2. Atomic moments in individual domains are all aligned neither parallel to nor perpendicular to one another below Curie point temperature
3. Each domain is magnetically saturated
4. Above Curie temperature, domains disrupt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
10. Match List-I (Insulators) with List-II (Resistivity) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Insulators) (Resistivity)
A. Bakelite 1.105 ohm-cm
B. Window glass 2.109 ohm-cm
C. Pure silica 3.1013 ohm-cm
D; Mica 4. 1017 ohm-cm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
11. Which of the following phenomena is most important when foodstuff is cooked in
a microwave oven?
(a) Resistive Joule heating
(b) Induction heating
(c)Dielectric heating
(d) Radiation heating
12. The frequency dependence of electronic polarizability of a dielectric is obtained by solving the equation:
mx=- ax- 2bx – 2E0 cos wt. Consider the following statements:
In this equation,
1. a is the restoring force constant, the expression for which is obtained from Coulomb’s law
2. m is the combined mass of electrons and nucleus
3. b is the damping constant occurring due to emission of electromagnetic radiation
4 m x term arises due to altered velocity of electrons orbiting the nucleus in presence of field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c)1,2 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
13. The correct sequence of the following in the increasing order of the values of
permittivity is
(a) Air, Vacuum, TaO2 Glass
(b) Air, Vacuum, Glass, TaO2
(c) Vacuum, Air, TaO2 Glass
(d) Vacuum, Air, Glass, TaO2
14. Match List-I (Polarization process) with List-Il (Approximate frequency) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Polarization process) (Approximate frequency)
A. Electronic polarization 1. 102 Hz
B. Ionic polarization 2. 105 Hz
C. Orientation polarization 3. 1013 Hz
D. Space-charge polarization 4. 1015 Hz
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
15. Which material among the following possesses excellent dielectric properties and good reliability for use in making capacitors?
(a)Silicon monoxide
(b) Silicon dioxide
(c) Tin oxide
(d) Chromium oxide
16. The most suitable material for making an LDR (Light dependent resistor) is a semiconductor material having
(a) Eg>> hv
(b) Eg > hv
(c) Eg=hV
(d) Eg<
17. Which one of the following is an essential components of electromechanical
relays?
(a)Graphite rod
(b) LED
(c)An electromagnet
(d) MOSFET
18. In a degenerate semiconductor, the majority carriers are controlled by
(a) Fermi-Dirac statistics
(b) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(c) Bose-Einstein (B-E) statistics
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
19. Fermions are the particles, which obey
(a)Maxwell-Boltzmann’s statistics
(b)Bose-Einstein’s statistics
(c Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(d Pauli’s exclusion principle
20. Excess carriers are generated in a sample of N-type semiconductor by shining
light at one end. The current flow in the sample will be made up of
(a) diffusion flow of carriers
(b) drift flow of carriers
(c) both diffusion and drift flow of carriers
(d) neither diffusion nor drift flow of carriers
Answers :
1 : a
2: c
3: c
4: b
5: d
6: a
7: c
8: b
9: c
10: b
11 : b
12 : b
13: b
14: b
15 : d
16 : d
17 : c
18 : a
19 : d
20: a
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