GK Geography questions for IES
GK for IES General Ability
1. Which one is associated with the work of gladers?
(a) Corrosion
(b) Attrition
(c) Corrosion
(d) Plucking
ANSWER (D)
2.Arrange the following soil particle by size in the descending order
I. Gravel
ll. Clay
III. Silt
IV. Sand
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, Il, III, I
(c) I, IV, Ill, II
(d) III, IV, I, II
ANSWER (C)
3. Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) I, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (D)
4.Which is the proper order of seismic waves as they are received at seismograph station ?
(a) L-wave, P-wave, S-wave
(b) P-wave, L-wave, S-wave
(c) P-wave, S-wave, L-wave
(d) S-wave, P-wave, L-wave
ANSWER (C)
5. The epicenter of an earthquake is the :
(a) point where P-waves touch the surface
(b) nearest point to the surface from the focus perpendicular to the earth’s surface
(c) point of intersection of P and 5 wave fronts
(d) antipodal point
ANSWER (B)
6. Which of the following belts are associated with seismic activity?
1. Circum-Pacific Belt
2. Circum-Atlantic Belt
3. Mid-Continental Belt
4. Mid-Atlantic Belt
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER (B)
7.The movement inside the Earth’s crust is studied by
(a) Geodesy
(b) Geology
(c) Plate Tectonics
(d) Seisrnology
ANSWER (D)
8. Consider the following rocks
1. Coal
2. Dolerite
3. Granite
4. Limestone
Which of the above is/are sedimentary rocks?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 r
(d) 4 only
ANSWER (C)
9. Match the following:
Highest peak Country
A. Mount Logan 1. Australia
B. Mount McKinley 2. USA
C. Mount Kosciusko 3. Canada
' A B C
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1
(d ) 2 3 1
ANSWER (C)
10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of increasing depth '?
(a) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(b) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Deep sea plains, Ocean depths
(c) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
(d) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Ocean depths, Deep sea plains
ANSWER (C)
11. Given below are names of four oceans :
1. Atlantic
2. Arctic
3. Indian
4. Pacific
The correct order of these oceans from the Smallest to the biggest in terms of area is.:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
ANSWER (B)
12. In which one of the following is Malta Located?
(a)Baltic sea
(b) mediterranean sea
(c) Black Sea .
(d) North Sea
ANSWER (B)
13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Most reef-forming corals prefer sea temperature between 17 °C and 33 °c
(b) Coral growth is usually restricted to the upper 25 or 30 m of the sea
(c) Coral animals belong to the organisms of Phylum Porifera
(d) Coral animals live in a mutualistic relationship with algae
ANSWER (B)
14.The important fishing areas called Grand Bank and Georges Bank located in the waters
of which one of the following?
(a) North Pacific
(b) South Pacific
(c) South-west Atlantic
(d) North-west Atlantic
ANSWER (D)
15.Match the following :
A. Fringing 1. wide coral reef separated
Reef from the coastline by a
wide deep lagoon
B. Barrier 2. uneven platform of coral
Reef separated from the
mainland by a narrow
shallow lagoon
C. Atoll 3. circular/elliptical/horse
shoe shaped coral reef
enclosing a lagoon
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2
ANSWER (A)
16.What is the correct decreasing order of the share of different salts in sea water ?
(a) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,magnesium sulphate, potassium
sulphate
(b) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium sulphate
(c) sodium chloride, magnesium sulphate,potassium sulphate, magnesium chloride
(d) sodium chloride, magnesium chloride,potassium sulphate, magnesium
sulphate
ANSWER (A)
17.Sunda Trench lies in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Antarctic Ocean
ANSWER (C)
18.Coral reefs are formed by
(a) volcanic rocks
(b) marine sediments
(c) chlorine material precipitated from seawater
(d) tiny colonial marine animals which construct limestone skeleton material
ANSWER (D)
19.Which one of the following is correct ?
Benguela current flows
(a) along Brazilian coast
(b) off Southwest African coast
(c) off Spanish and North African coast
(d) along West coast of United States
ANSWER (B)
20. Consider the following countries :
1. Algeria
2. Morocco
3. Mauritania
Which of these border(s) the Mediterranean
Sea?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER (B)
Showing posts with label GA. Show all posts
Showing posts with label GA. Show all posts
Monday, December 12, 2011
Friday, December 9, 2011
Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA
Geography Solved Questions For UPSC Engineering Services GA
Geography Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper for general awareness in UPSC IES
1.In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum ?
(a) During autumn
(b) After summer
(d) During winter
(d) During monsoon
ANSWER (B)
2.Tropical evergreen forests remain evergreen because :
(a) there is a thick undergrowth of bushes
(b) they do not shed their leaves
(c) shedding of leaves and simultaneous growth of new ones takes place
throughout the year
(d) while plants at one level shed their leaves, those at a higher level retain their
leaves
ANSWER (C)
3.Which of the following deserts does not lie in the Northern Hemisphere ?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Thar
ANSWER (B)
4.The hottest place in the world is 1
(a) Tehran, Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, india
(c) Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia, Libya
ANSWER (D)
5.Deserts such as Sahara are generally found between 20° and 30° latitudes in western
parts of the continents. This is because these regions :
(a) are very hot throughout the year
(b) have offshore winds throughout the year
(c) have warm offshore currents i
(d) lie in the belt of the doldrums
ANSWER (B)
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Steppes are the temperate grasslands of South America
(b) Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America
(c) Pampas are the temperate grasslands of South Australia
(d) Forests with trees which do not shed their leaves seasonally are called deciduous
forests
ANSWER (B)
7. Coniferous forests are in the region of :
(a) high humidity and high temperature
(b) low rainfall and very low temperature throughout the year
(c) low mean annual temperature throughout the year and very cold winter
(d) heavy rainfall and high temperature during summer
ANSWER (B)
8.Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as :
(a) Dry deciduous
(b) Dry evergreen
(c) Tropical moist deciduous
(d) Tropical moist evergreen
ANSWER (C)
9.Which of the following regions bear mainly the Coniferous forests ?
(a) Southern part of India
(b) South America
(c) Southern island of New Zealand
(d) Central, Eastern and Western parts of North America
ANSWER (D)
10.Many Savanna regions are unable to support good crops because:
(a) They have large tall grasses which form a canopy over the good crops and do not
allow them to grow
(b) There are large numbers of animals in this region, which eat up the crops
(c) The climate is too hot for the crops to grow
(d)they have poor lateritic soil
ANSWER (A)
11. Wine production is mainly carried out in Which of the following natural regions?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Savanna
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Coniferous forests
ANSWER (C)
12. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct '?
(a) Coniferous forests of high latitudes yield soft wood
(b) Between 2000 m and 3000 m elevation on the Himalayas grow, deodar, chinar
and walnut ,
(c) Forests in equatorial regions of India are less dense than the monsoon forests
(d) Large-scale exploitation of forests has caused soil erosion and repeated floods
ANSWER (C)
13. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
safari ?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial regions
(c) Temperate Grassland regions
(d) Savanna or Tropical Grassland regions
ANSWER (D)
14. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) desert and savanna regions
ANSWER (B)
15. Which climatic region has the least temperature range ?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Tropical region
(d) Mediterranean region '
ANSWER (A)
16. The Veld grassland of South Africa experiences:
(a) the Continental Savanna Climate
(b) the Maritime Savanna Climate
(c) the Steppe climate
(d) the Tropical desert climate
ANSWER (C)
17. The Taiga belt lies between:
(a) Mediterranean climate and Tundra
(b) Monsoon climate and Tundra
(c) Temperate grasslands and Tundra
(d) Tibet type climate and Tundra
ANSWER (C)
18. The Tropical Rain forest type of climate is characterized by
(a) average rainfall of about 300 cm
(b) heavy rain and high temperatures throughout the year
(c) hot dry summer and mild wet winters
(d) hot summer and cool winters with about 100 cm of annual rainfall
ANSWER (B)
19.Factory farming is the characteristic of
(a) north-western North America
(b) north-western Europe
(c) eastern Europe
(d) south-east Asia
ANSWER (B)
20. The zones of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year
correspond to ?
(a) Alpine meadows
(b) Antarctica
(c) Arctic deserts
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (D)
Geography Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper for general awareness in UPSC IES
1.In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum ?
(a) During autumn
(b) After summer
(d) During winter
(d) During monsoon
ANSWER (B)
2.Tropical evergreen forests remain evergreen because :
(a) there is a thick undergrowth of bushes
(b) they do not shed their leaves
(c) shedding of leaves and simultaneous growth of new ones takes place
throughout the year
(d) while plants at one level shed their leaves, those at a higher level retain their
leaves
ANSWER (C)
3.Which of the following deserts does not lie in the Northern Hemisphere ?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Thar
ANSWER (B)
4.The hottest place in the world is 1
(a) Tehran, Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, india
(c) Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia, Libya
ANSWER (D)
5.Deserts such as Sahara are generally found between 20° and 30° latitudes in western
parts of the continents. This is because these regions :
(a) are very hot throughout the year
(b) have offshore winds throughout the year
(c) have warm offshore currents i
(d) lie in the belt of the doldrums
ANSWER (B)
6.Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Steppes are the temperate grasslands of South America
(b) Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America
(c) Pampas are the temperate grasslands of South Australia
(d) Forests with trees which do not shed their leaves seasonally are called deciduous
forests
ANSWER (B)
7. Coniferous forests are in the region of :
(a) high humidity and high temperature
(b) low rainfall and very low temperature throughout the year
(c) low mean annual temperature throughout the year and very cold winter
(d) heavy rainfall and high temperature during summer
ANSWER (B)
8.Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as :
(a) Dry deciduous
(b) Dry evergreen
(c) Tropical moist deciduous
(d) Tropical moist evergreen
ANSWER (C)
9.Which of the following regions bear mainly the Coniferous forests ?
(a) Southern part of India
(b) South America
(c) Southern island of New Zealand
(d) Central, Eastern and Western parts of North America
ANSWER (D)
10.Many Savanna regions are unable to support good crops because:
(a) They have large tall grasses which form a canopy over the good crops and do not
allow them to grow
(b) There are large numbers of animals in this region, which eat up the crops
(c) The climate is too hot for the crops to grow
(d)they have poor lateritic soil
ANSWER (A)
11. Wine production is mainly carried out in Which of the following natural regions?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Savanna
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Coniferous forests
ANSWER (C)
12. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct '?
(a) Coniferous forests of high latitudes yield soft wood
(b) Between 2000 m and 3000 m elevation on the Himalayas grow, deodar, chinar
and walnut ,
(c) Forests in equatorial regions of India are less dense than the monsoon forests
(d) Large-scale exploitation of forests has caused soil erosion and repeated floods
ANSWER (C)
13. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
safari ?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial regions
(c) Temperate Grassland regions
(d) Savanna or Tropical Grassland regions
ANSWER (D)
14. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) desert and savanna regions
ANSWER (B)
15. Which climatic region has the least temperature range ?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Tropical region
(d) Mediterranean region '
ANSWER (A)
16. The Veld grassland of South Africa experiences:
(a) the Continental Savanna Climate
(b) the Maritime Savanna Climate
(c) the Steppe climate
(d) the Tropical desert climate
ANSWER (C)
17. The Taiga belt lies between:
(a) Mediterranean climate and Tundra
(b) Monsoon climate and Tundra
(c) Temperate grasslands and Tundra
(d) Tibet type climate and Tundra
ANSWER (C)
18. The Tropical Rain forest type of climate is characterized by
(a) average rainfall of about 300 cm
(b) heavy rain and high temperatures throughout the year
(c) hot dry summer and mild wet winters
(d) hot summer and cool winters with about 100 cm of annual rainfall
ANSWER (B)
19.Factory farming is the characteristic of
(a) north-western North America
(b) north-western Europe
(c) eastern Europe
(d) south-east Asia
ANSWER (B)
20. The zones of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year
correspond to ?
(a) Alpine meadows
(b) Antarctica
(c) Arctic deserts
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (D)
Friday, April 29, 2011
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
Indian history For IES UPSC general Awareness
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
UPSC IES prepera Helindian history MCQ for Engineering Services Exam
1. Which of the following is the most significant contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to modern India?
(a) His President ship of Indian National Congress
(b) His role in Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) His participation in Quit India Movement
(d) His achievement of integration of princely states
Ans:-D
2. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
I. It was a forum for various kinds of socialists in India.
II. It was a rival organization of Indian National Congress.
III. It championed the cause of the workers and peasants.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans:-C
3. The first President of independent India was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans:-A
4. Consider the following events:
1. Swadeshi movement
2. Home Rule movement
3. Anti -Rowlett Act Movement
4. Khilafat movement
Their correct chronological order is
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b)1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,1,2,4
Ans:-A
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai 1. Servants of India
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. The Pioneer
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. The Young India
D. Mahatma Gandhi 4. The Kesari
5. Navjeevan
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 1
Ans:-A
6. Choose the correct sequence of of occurrence of the following:
1. Morley-Minto reforms
2. Simon Commission
3. Second Round Table Conference
4. First Round Table Conference
(a) 1,2,4,3
(b)4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans:-A
7. In 1917, at Champaran the government forced farmers to undertake
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Hallow cultivation
(c) Opium cultivation
(d) Land ceiling
Ans:-A
8. The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Lahore
Ans:-A
9. Woods Despatch of 1854 resulted in the
(a) introduction of Postal System
(b) Abolition of child marriage
(c) Establishment of educational system
(d) Establishment of Indian universities
Ans:-C
10. The English weekly edited by Mahatma Gandhi was -
(a) Kesari
(b) Comrade
(c) Bombay Chronicle
(d) Young India.
Ans:-D
11. The first railway started in India under the
Governor- Generalship of
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans:-B
12. The Act which imparted provincial autonomy is
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans:-C
13. Indian sepoys in the Bengal army revolted because
(a) The British officers ill-treated them.
(b) The British tried to make them use the greased cartridges.
(c) The British discontinued the payment of field allowance.
(d) The British passed the General Service Enlistment Act.
Ans:-B
14. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(a) Champaran
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
Ans:-B
15. Quit India Movement started after the failure of
(a) Cripps proposal
(b) Simon recommendations
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) None of these
Ans:-A
Tuesday, March 17, 2009
Current GK General Knowledge for IES 2009
1. What is the budget of Manned Space mission of ISRO?
a 8500 Crore Rs
b 12400 Crore Rs
c 15000 Crore Rs
d 17350 Crore Rs
ANS B
2. Who is the Deputy Chairman of planning Commission?
a Montek Singh Ahluwalia
b Manmohan Singh
c P Chidambram
d Rajshekhra Reddy
ANS A
3.Who is the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre?
a A K Antony
b P C Ghadai
c G S Gupta
d K Radhakrishna
ANS D
What is the name of British Foreign Secretary who toured India in Jan 2009?
a O Sullevan
b David Miliband
c Warren Buffet
d Joseph Hewes
ANS B
4. Recently a motion was Submitted to Chairman Rajya Sabha Hamid Ansari .The motion was Filed under Article 217(1-b) and article 124 (4).These two articles have provision regarding
a Removal of high Court Judge
b Delimitation of constituencies
c More power for Rajya Sabha
d Allocation of Assets to states
ANS A
5.On 3rd Feb 2009 India Signed a Pact for Co-operation in production and marketing of Biofuels in a sustainable and environmental Friendly manner with
a Italy
b Singapore
c US
d Britain
ANS C
6.India’s Biggest Solar Energy Plant is Coming up in
a Asansol West Bengal
b Ujjain MP
c Vapi Gujrat
d Jaislmer Rajasthan
ANS A
7.According to UNICEF Report State of World’s Children 2009, India’s Maternal Mortality Rate MMR Stands at (per 1, 00,000 Live Births)
a 540
b 450
c 730
d 1019
ANS B
8.According to Forest Survey of India Report 2007 what percentage of India’s territory is covered under Forests?
a 23
b 33
c 36
d 39.5
ANS A
9.Environment ministry has recently proposed a Central Scheme of Rs 890 Core to Have ‘rich forest ‘ in each panchayat by 2012 .The scheme is known as
a Gram van Yojna
b Panchayat Jungle Yojna
c Vriksh lagao Yojna
d Van panchayat Yojna
ANS D
10. 12th India international Security Expo was held in Feb 2009 at
a Kolkata
b Mumbai
c Delhi
d Chennai
ANS C
11.Admiral Gorshkov an Aircraft carrier from Russia is being acquired by Indian Navy
What is the new name of The carrier
a INS Virat
b INS Sanhar
c INS Jal Shakti
d INS Vikramaditya
ANS D
12. In Feb 2009 parliament of which nation Voted to Shut a US airbase?
a Kyrgyzstan
b Uganda
c Saudi Arabia
d Iran
ANS A
13 Who is The President of Sri Lanka ?
a Ranil Wickremesinghe
b SB Dissanayke
c Rajapaksha
d None of the above
ANS C
14 Who is the New Prime Minister of Zimbabwe?
a Morgan Tsvangirai
b Robert Mugabe
c Thokozani khupe
d Tendai Biti
ANS A
15 Hugo Chavez is President of which Country?
a Nigeria
b Ausrtia
c Finland
d Venezuela
ANS D
16 Swat Valley which was recently in News is Situated in?
a Pakistan
b Iran
c Afganistan
d Russia
ANS A
17 Recently Which neighboring Country of India Witnessed mutiny in an Armed force?
a Sri lanka
b Bangla Desh
c Pakistan
d Nepal
ANS B
18 In Feb 2009 which Indian State signed a Memorandum of Understanding MOU with International Co-operative Alliance ICA
a Haryana
b Punjab
c Tamil nadu
d Gujrat
ANS B
19 Who will be the Indian Ambassador to US from April 2009
a Ronen Sen
b Sudhir Vyas
c Meera Shankar
d Sharat Sabharwal
ANS C
20 Who will be the Next Indian Ambassador In Germany
a Ronen Sen
b Sudhir Vyas
c Meera Shankar
d Sharat Sabharwal
ANS B
a 8500 Crore Rs
b 12400 Crore Rs
c 15000 Crore Rs
d 17350 Crore Rs
ANS B
2. Who is the Deputy Chairman of planning Commission?
a Montek Singh Ahluwalia
b Manmohan Singh
c P Chidambram
d Rajshekhra Reddy
ANS A
3.Who is the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre?
a A K Antony
b P C Ghadai
c G S Gupta
d K Radhakrishna
ANS D
What is the name of British Foreign Secretary who toured India in Jan 2009?
a O Sullevan
b David Miliband
c Warren Buffet
d Joseph Hewes
ANS B
4. Recently a motion was Submitted to Chairman Rajya Sabha Hamid Ansari .The motion was Filed under Article 217(1-b) and article 124 (4).These two articles have provision regarding
a Removal of high Court Judge
b Delimitation of constituencies
c More power for Rajya Sabha
d Allocation of Assets to states
ANS A
5.On 3rd Feb 2009 India Signed a Pact for Co-operation in production and marketing of Biofuels in a sustainable and environmental Friendly manner with
a Italy
b Singapore
c US
d Britain
ANS C
6.India’s Biggest Solar Energy Plant is Coming up in
a Asansol West Bengal
b Ujjain MP
c Vapi Gujrat
d Jaislmer Rajasthan
ANS A
7.According to UNICEF Report State of World’s Children 2009, India’s Maternal Mortality Rate MMR Stands at (per 1, 00,000 Live Births)
a 540
b 450
c 730
d 1019
ANS B
8.According to Forest Survey of India Report 2007 what percentage of India’s territory is covered under Forests?
a 23
b 33
c 36
d 39.5
ANS A
9.Environment ministry has recently proposed a Central Scheme of Rs 890 Core to Have ‘rich forest ‘ in each panchayat by 2012 .The scheme is known as
a Gram van Yojna
b Panchayat Jungle Yojna
c Vriksh lagao Yojna
d Van panchayat Yojna
ANS D
10. 12th India international Security Expo was held in Feb 2009 at
a Kolkata
b Mumbai
c Delhi
d Chennai
ANS C
11.Admiral Gorshkov an Aircraft carrier from Russia is being acquired by Indian Navy
What is the new name of The carrier
a INS Virat
b INS Sanhar
c INS Jal Shakti
d INS Vikramaditya
ANS D
12. In Feb 2009 parliament of which nation Voted to Shut a US airbase?
a Kyrgyzstan
b Uganda
c Saudi Arabia
d Iran
ANS A
13 Who is The President of Sri Lanka ?
a Ranil Wickremesinghe
b SB Dissanayke
c Rajapaksha
d None of the above
ANS C
14 Who is the New Prime Minister of Zimbabwe?
a Morgan Tsvangirai
b Robert Mugabe
c Thokozani khupe
d Tendai Biti
ANS A
15 Hugo Chavez is President of which Country?
a Nigeria
b Ausrtia
c Finland
d Venezuela
ANS D
16 Swat Valley which was recently in News is Situated in?
a Pakistan
b Iran
c Afganistan
d Russia
ANS A
17 Recently Which neighboring Country of India Witnessed mutiny in an Armed force?
a Sri lanka
b Bangla Desh
c Pakistan
d Nepal
ANS B
18 In Feb 2009 which Indian State signed a Memorandum of Understanding MOU with International Co-operative Alliance ICA
a Haryana
b Punjab
c Tamil nadu
d Gujrat
ANS B
19 Who will be the Indian Ambassador to US from April 2009
a Ronen Sen
b Sudhir Vyas
c Meera Shankar
d Sharat Sabharwal
ANS C
20 Who will be the Next Indian Ambassador In Germany
a Ronen Sen
b Sudhir Vyas
c Meera Shankar
d Sharat Sabharwal
ANS B
Online Free Preperation Questions for IES 2009 GA
These Questions are useful for preperation for GA for IES 2009
1 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
3. Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857? ‘
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
6 . Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
7. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Movementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
9. In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
10. At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
11. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
12. Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaties, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America’
(c) West America (d) South America
14 . What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist leader of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
15. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
16. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China’
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
17. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
19 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu
22. Itaipu Dam built art the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
23. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the’ Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (p) 3 only
24. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth’s water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the stateinentsgiven above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d)Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
27 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
28 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba
29 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra’ Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block
30 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodiumcarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2
31 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do ‘little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
33 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
34 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
35 . Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
36 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph’e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the’ following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey
39 Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
40 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
42 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘e-chaupals’?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
43 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
44 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India’s Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
45 . Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
46 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
47 . Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
48 . Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
49 .Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia
50 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
51 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only- (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
52 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
53 Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
56. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
57. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
58. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
60. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi
Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They’ are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder’s hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
61. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
62. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
63. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
64. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
65. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
66
On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
67.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
68.
A big rectangular pIot. of area 4320 m Square is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m
69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury
70 Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
71 . 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. ”
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
73. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
74.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
75. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader’s Digest Indian Express publication group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
76. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise lndustrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
77. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
78. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and C never sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above
79 Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
80. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass’ - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
81. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How.many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
82. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
83. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
84. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
85. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its
one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. Whatis the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
86. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
87. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
88. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
89. Match items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List - I (Location) List - 1I (Known For/1n News for)
A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run
B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit
C. Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant
D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
90. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna
92. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
93. Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
95. Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan’ disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
96 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
97 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population ‘2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98 . Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville
99 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
100 . Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Check the answers at original site at http://zigg.in/gk/?p=22
1 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
3. Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857? ‘
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
6 . Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
7. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Movementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
9. In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
10. At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
11. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
12. Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaties, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America’
(c) West America (d) South America
14 . What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist leader of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
15. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
16. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China’
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
17. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
19 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu
22. Itaipu Dam built art the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
23. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the’ Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (p) 3 only
24. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth’s water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the stateinentsgiven above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d)Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
27 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
28 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba
29 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra’ Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block
30 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodiumcarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2
31 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do ‘little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
33 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
34 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
35 . Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
36 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph’e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the’ following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey
39 Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
40 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
42 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘e-chaupals’?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
43 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
44 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India’s Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
45 . Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
46 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
47 . Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
48 . Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
49 .Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia
50 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
51 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only- (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
52 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
53 Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
56. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
57. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
58. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
60. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi
Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They’ are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder’s hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
61. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
62. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
63. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
64. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
65. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
66
On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
67.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
68.
A big rectangular pIot. of area 4320 m Square is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m
69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury
70 Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
71 . 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. ”
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
73. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
74.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
75. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader’s Digest Indian Express publication group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
76. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise lndustrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
77. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
78. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and C never sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above
79 Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
80. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass’ - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
81. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How.many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
82. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
83. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
84. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
85. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its
one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. Whatis the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
86. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
87. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
88. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
89. Match items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List - I (Location) List - 1I (Known For/1n News for)
A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run
B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit
C. Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant
D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
90. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna
92. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
93. Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
95. Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan’ disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
96 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
97 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population ‘2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98 . Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville
99 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
100 . Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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PART-B
61. The deficiency of which one of the following
leads to anemia?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Citirc acid
c. Folic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoan
d. Nematode worm
63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
a. Grafting
b. Layering
c. Root cutting
d. Stem cutting
64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest
muscular walls?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a
true fruit?
a. Apple
b. Date
c. Coconut
d. Tomato
66. In human body, while one of the following
glands is located in the neck?
a. Adrenal
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid
67. In human body, which one among the
following secretes digestive enzyme?
a. Large institute
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen
68. Which one among the following is a warm
blooded animal?
a. Anaconda
b. Crocodile
c. Shark
d. Whale
69. Which one among the following is an ape
naturally found in India?
a. Chimpanzee
b. Hoolak Gibbon
c. Gorilla
d. Orangutan
70. Which one among the following plants
produces seeds without producing flower?
a. Cashew nut
b. Date Palm
c. Pinus
d. Toddy
71. The stem of which one of the following plants
is usually underground?
a. Banana
b. Sweet potato
c. Topioca
d. Water melon
72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI)
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group,
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food
Article’ in WPI?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21
73. Which one of the following is responsible for
bringing out the report on National and Per
Capita Income in India?
a. Ministry of Planning
b. Ministry of Human Resource
Development
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation
74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
of the following countries is the largest cutting
and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
a. Belgium
b. France
c. India
d. South Africa
75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
central pool, which one of the following States
has the highest share of contribution?
a. Haryana
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Uttar Pradesh
76. So far how many times has the countrywide
“Economic Census” been done in India?
a. Thrice
b. Five times
c. Seven times
d. Nine times
77. Which among the following was the capital of
Shivaji?
a. Singhagarh
b. Raigarh
c. Panhala
d. Poona
78. Who among the following arrived in the court
of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
of England?
a. William Hawkins
b. Sir Thomas Roe
c. Sir Edward Terry
d. Bernier
79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
of Bengal to the British East India Company in
the year 1765?
a. Jehangir
b. Shahjahan
c. Aurangzeb
d. Shah Alam-II
80. Who of the following was the representative of
Indian National Congress in the Second Round
Table Conference, held in London?
a. Madan Mohan Malviya
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Vallabhbhai Patel
81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
a. Paris
b. San Francisco
c. Tokyo
d. London
82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the
Constituent Assembly were held under which
one of the following?
a. Mountbatten Plan
b. Cabinet Mission
c. Cripps Proposals
d. Wavell Plan
83. Who among the following introduced cashew
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese
84. When All India Trade Union Congress was
founded in 1920, who of the following was
elected its president?
a. C.R. Das
b. Lala Pajpat Rai
c. N.M. Joshi
d. V.V. Giri
85. Which one of the following was the occasion
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward,
as an important national leader?
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Formation of Swaraj Party
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon
Commission
At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated
Sitaramayya, who among the following had
withdrawn his candidature from
Presidentship?
a. Abdul Kalam Azad
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Jayaprakash Narayan
d. Vallabhbhai Patel
87. Which one of the following was not a
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given
in 1920?
a. Boycott of titles
b. Boycott of Civil Services
c. Boycott of English education
d. Boycott of police and army
88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous
work Hind Swaraj written?
a. 1907
b. 1909
c. 1914
d. 1934
89. Consider the following statements with
reference to Union Government:
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff
Selection Commission is for five years or
still they attain the age of 62 years,
whichever is earlier.
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union
Public Service Commission is for six years
or till they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
90. According to the provisions of the
Constitution of India, who inquires into all
doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
connection with the election of Vice-President
of India?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. The Election Commission of India
d. The Attorney General of India
91. Who among the following tribes live in the
Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
a. Apatani
b. Jarawa
c. Munda
d. Santhal
92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Book)
A. Crime and Punishment
B. Farewell to Arms
C. The Rights of Man
D. Unto The Last
List II
(Author)
1. Ernest Hemingway
2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
3. John Ruskin
4. Thomas Paine
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 1 4 3
93. In India, when both, the offices of the
President and the Vice-President happen to be
vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
duties of the President?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Union Home Minister
c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. The Chief Justice of India
94. For the review of which of the following was a
Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
Government?
* a. Industrial sickness
b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
d. Centre-State relations
95. In which one of the following countries did the
Industrial Revolution first take place?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Germany
d. France
96. Who of the following is the author of the
famous book ‘Das Kapital’?
a. Adam Smith
b. Karl Marx
c. Rousseau
d. Voltaire
97. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be
introduced only with the recommendation of
a. the President of India
b. the Prime Minister of India
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. the Union Finance Minister
98. Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar
99. State which one of the following groups of
oceanic water currents meet near
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A B C D
a.1 4 3 2
b.3 2 1 4
c.1 2 3 4
d.3 4 1 2
102. Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa
103. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia
105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai
106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea
107. In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan
108. Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor
109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform
110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores
112. What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes
113. Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing
116. The well-known sportsman Liu
Xiang has excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming
117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space
118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008
119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
120. Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao
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IES General Ability 2008
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SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something
2. BADGER
a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently
3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid
4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily
5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant
6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit
7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture
9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying
11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest
12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate
13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness
14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper
15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation
16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress
21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)
23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)
24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)
25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)
26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)
27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R
37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-
39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S
40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P
42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P
43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S
44. While improvements
have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q
46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R
47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.
48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation
49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.
52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
53. Which one of the following is correct?
A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.
57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.
58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen
59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!
60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science J
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.
Link to part 2
This is part 1 of 2
Link to Part 2 Given at Bottom of page
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something
2. BADGER
a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently
3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid
4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily
5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant
6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit
7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture
9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying
11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest
12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate
13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness
14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper
15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation
16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress
21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)
23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)
24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)
25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)
26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)
27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R
37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-
39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S
40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P
42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P
43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S
44. While improvements
have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q
46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R
47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.
48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation
49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.
52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
53. Which one of the following is correct?
A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.
57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.
58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen
59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!
60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science J
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.
Link to part 2
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