Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering

Multiple Choice Questions Civil Engineering
based on IES 2010 questions
MCQ Civil Engineering quiz
1. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn²
B. 0.75 kN/ rn²
C. 1.35 kN/ rn²
D. 1.50 kN/ rn²
2. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
3.The duration of any activity in case of a PERT programme is calculated as a weighted average of three time estimates namely the optimistic time t_o , the pessimistic time t_p and the most probable time t_m which is given as

4. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
5. Consider the following statements of network:
1. Only one time estimate is required for each activity.
2. Three time estimates for each activity.
3. Time and cost are both controlling factors.
4. It is build-up of event-oriented diagram.
Which of the above statements are correctly applicable to CPM network?
A 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D 3 and 4
6. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
7. A circular shaft which has a diameter of 100 mm is subjected to a torque of 5 kN-m. The shear stress, in N/mm² , induced in the shaft would be
A160/Π
B.120/Π
C.125/Π
D.80/Π
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type)
A. Single angle in roof trusses
B. Double angles in roof trusses
C. Single I section in columns
D. Double I section in columns
List II
(Recommended
Slenderness ratio)
1. 80 — 150
2. 30—60
3. 100- 180
4. 60 — 120
Codes
A B C D
A 3 4 1 2
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 1 4 2
D.2 1 4 3
9.

10. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
11.

12. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
13. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis :‘
1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero.
2. At ultimate collapse load, the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to form a mechanism.
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both land2
14. The base plate of a roof truss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade f_y = 250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area ?
A 30 kN
B. 67.5 kN
C. 90 kN
D. 120 kN
15. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in
bolted joints of tension members is
A 16 times the diameter of the bolt
B. 32 times the diameter of the bolt
C..16 times the thickness of the plate
D. 32 times the thickness of the plate
16. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone she takes no loss than 5 minutes for a call but sometimes as much as an hour. 15 minutes calls are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If the daughter’s calls were to be represented as an activity in PERT project, the expected duration of each phone call is?
A 89/6 minutes
B. 101/6 minutes
C.113/6 minutes
D.125/6 minutes
17

18.A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a concentrated load at mid span. If M_p, is
the plastic moment capacity of the beam, the value of collapse load will be
A. 12M_p/L
B. 8M_p/L
C 6M_p/L
D. 4M_p/L
19. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Shape factor
2. Length of the beam
3. Type of loading
4. Yield strength of material
Which of these affect the influence length of
plastic hinge in a beam?
A. 1 only .
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
21

22. Consider the following statements:
1. PERT is activity-oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
2. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
3. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
23

24.PERT calculator yield a project length of 60 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks. Probability factor, corresponding to 95% probability is 1.647; then the number of weeks required to complete, and project with a probability of 95% is,
A 60.94
B. 62.94
C. 64.94
D. 66.94
25. For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12; the factor of safety in bending stress is 1.5. If the allowable stress is increased by 20% for wind or ,earthquake loads, then the load factor is
A 1.10
B. 1.25
C. 1.35
D 1.40
26. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is driven. The net sectional area of the plate is
A 1800 mm² .
B. 2805 mm²
C. 2820 mm²
D 3242 mm²
27. At a section along the span of a welded plate girder, in which the web is spliced, the bending moment, at a section is M. The girder is comprised of top flange; web and bottom flange plates all of equal areas. The share of the bending moment taken by splice plates would be
A M
B. M/L
C. M/7
D M/13
28. Consider the following stipulations in designing a laced column
1. Single lacing systems on opposite planes shall preferably be in the same direction so that one is the shadow of the other.
2. Lacing bar should be a flat section.
3. The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars for compression shall not exceed l80.
4. Laced compression members are to be provided with tie plates at ends.
Which of the above observations is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4,
D. 1 and 4
29. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
30

31. Consider the following statements:
Entrainment of air in concrete is done so as to
1. Increase the workability.
2. Increase the strength.
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and thawing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
32. Consider the following statements is work breakdown structure
1. It is a graphical representation of entire programme.
2. The Top-Down approach to planning is adopted.
3. The Down-Top approach to planning is adopted.
4. It is suitable for complex projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
33. If P is the percentage of water required for determination of normal consistency of cement, then percentage of water to be added for determination of initial setting time is
A. 0.70P
B. 0.75 P
C. Q.80 P
D. 0.85 P
34. Consider the following statements regarding the. slope of cost-time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by ‘crash cost not divided by crash time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B.2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength of concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
Which of the above statements.is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D.3 only
36. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is
500 kN. The ultimate collapse load of the column is
A 500 kN
B. 662.5 kN
C, 750kN
D.1100 kN
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher. strength than a lean concrete mix since it has more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
38. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm² . and 300 kg/cm² . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
39. Consider . the following statements:
Admixtures are added to concrete to
1. Increase its strength.
2. Reduce heat of hydration.
3. Delay the setting of cement.
4. Reduce water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4.
40. A building contractor discovers from his record that in the last 200 slab castings his mixer machine broke down 21 times. During each breakdown, he had to pay on an average about Rs. 2,500 for idle labour. A standby mixer machine, if hired on the day of slab casting, would cost him Rs. 200 per day. The expected loss is more than the mitigation expense of hiring the mixer by
A Rs. 151.50
B. Rs. 241.50
C. Rs. 262.50
D. Rs. 283.50
41. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
42

The distribution factors for members AE and AC of the box section are
A 0.5 and 0.5
B. 0.6 and 0.4
C. 0.25 and 0.75
D. 1 and zero
43

44.Consider the following activities:
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Erection of formwork
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of formwork
What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities?
A 1—2—3—4
B.2— 1—4—3
C.2—1—3 —4
D.1—3—2—4
45. Which one of the following is relevant to Activity on Node (AON)?
A. Dummy activities may be many
B. There will be no dummy activities
C. It is used for quite complex project
D. It is easier to associate with time flow of activities
46. Consider the following statements about the
air entraining admixture in concrete:
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only.
47.

The RC slab, simply supported on all edges as in above figure, is subjected to a total UDL of 12 kN/m². The maximum shear force! unit length along the edge ‘BC’ is
A 16kN
B. 12kN
C. 8kN
D. 30kN
48.

The above figure indicates a project network; the number at each activity represents its normal duration in days. The critical path is along
A 1—2—3—6—7— 8
B. 1—2 —4—5—7 — 8
C. l—2——5—7— 8
D. 1—2—4—6—7 — 8
49.

50

In the above network, the duration of activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of the activities is along
A 1—2—3—5—7—8
B. 1—2—3—6—7—8 .
C. 1—2—4—5—7—8
D. 1—2—3—4—5—7—8
Answers:

1	A
2	C
3	B
4	D
5	A
6	B
7	D
8	B
9	D
10	B
11	A
12	B
13	D
14	A
15	C
16	D
17	B
18	C
19	C
20	B
21	A
22	D
23	D
24	C
25	D
26	B
27	C
28	D
29	B
30	D
31	C
32	B
33	D
34	C
35	B
36	C
37	A
38	B
39	B
40	#
41	A
42	A
43	D
44	C
45	B
46	A
47	A
48	B
49	C
50	A

Source:http://exams.qoney.com/objective-solved-questions-civil-engineering/

electronics and Communications objective questions

electronics and Communications objective questions

1. When BCC iron is heated, it changes to FCC iron resulting in
(a)contraction -in volume
(b) increase in volume
(c)no change in volume
(d) crack in the material
2. When copper is added to silver in small quantity so as to form an alloy, the resistivity of such an alloy is
(a) equal to the resistivity of copper
(b) equal to the resistivity of silver
(c) greater than the resistivity of copper
(d) in between the resistivity of silver and copper
3. Match List-I (Materials) with List-II (Applications of materials) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Materials) (Applications of materials)
A. Aluminum 1. Current carrying spring
B. Phosphor Bronze 2. Heating element
C. Carbon 3. Commutator brush
D. Ni chrome 4. Telephone chords and trolley wires
Codes:
A B C D
4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
4. When a semiconductor bar is heated at one end, a voltage across the bar is developed. If the heated end is positive, the semiconductor is ?
(a) p-type
(b) n-type
(c) intrinsic
(d) highly degenerate
5. The conductivity of a semiconductor crystal due to any current carrier is NOT proportional to
(a.) mobility of the carrier
(b) effective density of states in the conduction band
(c) electronic charge
(d) surface states in the semiconductor
6. Amplification of ultrasonic waves is possible in a piezoelectric semiconductor under applied electric field. The basic phenomenon involved is known as
(a) Electrostriction
(b) Acousto-optic interaction
(c)Acoustic-electric interaction
(d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
7. Piezoelectric quartz crystal resonators find application where
(a) signal amplification is required
(b) rectification of the signal is required
(c) signal frequency control is required
(d)modulation of signal is required
8. When certain percentage of silicon is added to iron, the resistivity of the iron increase by a factor of 5. If a transformer core is made out of this iron, as compared to the previous value when silicon was not added, the eddy current loss will be
(a) 77%
(b) 80%
(c) 83%
(d) 86%
9. Which of the following are the properties of ferromagnetic domains?
1. Permanent magnetisation
2. Atomic moments in individual domains are all aligned neither parallel to nor perpendicular to one another below Curie point temperature
3. Each domain is magnetically saturated
4. Above Curie temperature, domains disrupt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
10. Match List-I (Insulators) with List-II (Resistivity) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Insulators) (Resistivity)
A. Bakelite 1.10⁵ ohm-cm
B. Window glass 2.10⁹ ohm-cm
C. Pure silica 3.10¹³ ohm-cm
D; Mica 4. 10¹⁷ ohm-cm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
11. Which of the following phenomena is most important when foodstuff is cooked in
a microwave oven?
(a) Resistive Joule heating
(b) Induction heating
(c)Dielectric heating
(d) Radiation heating
12. The frequency dependence of electronic polarizability of a dielectric is obtained by solving the equation:
mx=- ax- 2bx – 2E₀ cos wt. Consider the following statements:
In this equation,
1. a is the restoring force constant, the expression for which is obtained from Coulomb’s law
2. m is the combined mass of electrons and nucleus
3. b is the damping constant occurring due to emission of electromagnetic radiation
4 m x term arises due to altered velocity of electrons orbiting the nucleus in presence of field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c)1,2 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
13. The correct sequence of the following in the increasing order of the values of
permittivity is
(a) Air, Vacuum, TaO₂ Glass
(b) Air, Vacuum, Glass, TaO₂
(c) Vacuum, Air, TaO₂ Glass
(d) Vacuum, Air, Glass, TaO₂
14. Match List-I (Polarization process) with List-Il (Approximate frequency) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Polarization process) (Approximate frequency)
A. Electronic polarization 1. 10² Hz
B. Ionic polarization 2. 10⁵ Hz
C. Orientation polarization 3. 10¹³ Hz
D. Space-charge polarization 4. 10¹⁵ Hz
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
15. Which material among the following possesses excellent dielectric properties and good reliability for use in making capacitors?
(a)Silicon monoxide
(b) Silicon dioxide
(c) Tin oxide
(d) Chromium oxide
16. The most suitable material for making an LDR (Light dependent resistor) is a semiconductor material having
(a) Eg>> hv
(b) Eg > hv
(c) Eg=hV
(d) Eg<
17. Which one of the following is an essential components of electromechanical
relays?
(a)Graphite rod
(b) LED
(c)An electromagnet
(d) MOSFET
18. In a degenerate semiconductor, the majority carriers are controlled by
(a) Fermi-Dirac statistics
(b) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(c) Bose-Einstein (B-E) statistics
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
19. Fermions are the particles, which obey
(a)Maxwell-Boltzmann’s statistics
(b)Bose-Einstein’s statistics
(c Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(d Pauli’s exclusion principle
20. Excess carriers are generated in a sample of N-type semiconductor by shining
light at one end. The current flow in the sample will be made up of
(a) diffusion flow of carriers
(b) drift flow of carriers
(c) both diffusion and drift flow of carriers
(d) neither diffusion nor drift flow of carriers
Answers :
1 : a
2: c
3: c
4: b
5: d
6: a
7: c
8: b
9: c
10: b
11 : b
12 : b
13: b
14: b
15 : d
16 : d
17 : c
18 : a
19 : d
20: a

List of Books For UPSC IES Indian Engineering Services Exam

List of Books For UPSC IES Indian Engineering Services Exam
Buy Books For UPSC IES EXAM
UPSC IES Exam  Indian Engineering Services Exam is for Top Engineer Posts in Indian Government and is Conducted By UPSC
Below is the List of Top Books For This Exam
These Books can be Purchased Online and are Very useful For UPSC IES EXAM

Chapter Wise Solutions Of U. P. S. C. I. E. S. CIVIL ENGINEERING
By Panel Of Experts

   

Chapter Wise Solutions Of U. P. S. C. I. E. S. MECHANICAL ENGINEERING     Chapter Wise Solutions Of U. P. S. C. I. E. S. MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
By Panel Of Experts

   

Chapter Wise Solutions Of U. P. S. C. I. E. S. GENERAL ABILITY.     Chapter Wise Solutions Of U. P. S. C. I. E. S. GENERAL ABILITY.
By Panel Of Experts


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Guide For IES Electrical Engg
By D Gupta


Guide For IES Civil Engineering
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I. E. S. Electrical Engg. (Solved Papers)
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Guide For IES Mechanical Engg.
By Mittal


I. E. S. General Ability Test
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Article Source : books.m4in.com

Elecrtical Engineering Questions For UPSC IES

Elecrtical Engineering Questions For UPSC IES

Engineers Fully Solved
Electrical Engineering: Objective Questions with Answers
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ADVANCED ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Electrical Engineering Interview Questions.
These MCQ questions are very useful for
UPSC IES Exam
UPSC Civil Services Prelims Electrical Engg
1.If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased hr 50% and the frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming that the magnetic circuit remains unsaturated), the maximum core flax density will
(a) change to three times the original value
(b) change to 1.5 times the original value
(c) change to 0.5 times as the original value
(d) remain the same as the original value
2. The low—voltage winding of a core type transformer is subdivided into two equal halves, each of half the original width of the single winding will the high voltage winding in between (instead of having the usual construction of low-voltage winding adjacent to the core and surrounded by the high-voltage winding). Such an interlacing of coils would make the combined primary and secondary leakage reactance (in terms of primary) nearly.
(a)twice
(b) equal
(c)half
(d) one -fourth
3. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected transformers are supplied from the same source. One of the transformers is of. Dy I and the other is of Dy II / connection. The phase difference between the corresponding phase voltages of the secondaries would he
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°
4. In a transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of harmonics k the
(a) overload
(b) poor insulation
(c) iron loss
(d) saturation of core
5. A 40 kVA transformer/ a core loss of400 W and a full load copper of of 800 W. The proportion of full-load at maximum efficiency is
(a)50%
(b) 62.3%
(c) 70.7%
(d)100 %
6.A single phase transformer has rating of 15 KVA 600 / 120 V. It is recommended as an auto transformer to supply at 720 V from a 600 V primary source. The maximum load it can supply is ?
(a)90 kVA
(b)18 kVA
(c)15 kVA
(d) 12 kVA
7. Equalizing pulses in TV are placed during the
(a) vertical blanking period
(b) horizontal blanking period
(c)serration
(d) horizontal retrace
8. The most useful approach to radar system for monitoring the speed of moving vehicles is:
(a) Pulsed radar
(b) Monopulse
(c)Doppler radar
(d) Auto tracking radar
9. A. dc shunt generator, when driven at its rated speed, is found to he not generating any voltage. Which of the following would account for this?
I. There is no residual magnetism
2. The connection of the field winding is not proper with respect to the armature terminals.
3. The resistance of the field circuit is greater than the critical field resistance.
4. The load resistance is less than the critical armature resistance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)3 and 4
(b)l,2 and 4
(c)1,2 and 3
(d)l.2,3 and 4
10. To have spark/as commutation, the armature reaction effect in a dc machine is neutralised by
(a) using compensating winding and commutating poles
(b) Shifting the brush axis from the geometrical neutral axis to the magnetic neutral axis
(c) fixing the brush axis in line with the pole axis
(d) increasing the field excitation
11.In a dc shunt general or working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the direction of rotation, as a result of this, commutation will
(a)improve but terminal voltage will fall -
(b)worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) worsen and terminal voltage will rise
12. Consider the following statements:
The maximum range of radar can be increased by
1. increasing the peak transmitted power
2. increasing the gain of the receiver
3. increasing the diameter of the antenna
4. reducing the wavelength used
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d)1 and 3 are correct
13. Consider the following statements about broadband communication using submarine cables:
1. A submarine cable repeater contains filters for the two directions of transmits
2. Armored submarine cable is used for the shallow-shore ends of the cable.
3. Fibre optic submarine cable is used to prevent inadvertent ploughing in of the cable
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
14. A dc overcompounded generator was operating satisfactorily and supplying power to an infinite bus when the prime mover failed to supply any mechanical power. The machine would then run as a ?
(a) cumulatively compounded motor with speed reversed
(b) cumulatively compounded motor with direction of rotation as before
(c) differentially compounded motor with speed reversed
(d) differentially compounded motor with direction of speed as before.
15 To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, It is best to use a
(a) slotted line
(b) balun
(c)directional coupler
(a) quarter-wave transformer
16. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(a) damping toruqe
(b) eddy current torque
(c)torques aiding the developing torque
(d) no torque
17. For a given developed power, a synchronous motor operating from a constant voltage and constant frequency supply, will draw the minimum and maximum armature currents, Imin and Imax respectively, corresponding to?
(a)Imin at unity pf, but Imax at zero pf
(b) Imax at unity p, but Imin at zero p1
(c) both Imin and Imax at unity pf
(d )both Imin and Imax at zero pf
18. Consider the folio wing statements regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive
2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 180
4. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 360
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
19 While conducting a “slip “ test for determination of direct and quadrature axis synchronous reactance ‘Xd’ and ‘Xq’ of salient pole synchronous machine, the rotor of the machine is run with a slip ‘s’ and stator supply frequency ‘f’. The frequency of
1. voltage induced across open field terminals,
2. envelope of the armature terminal voltage.
3. envelope of the armature current, and
4. armature current
will be respectively
(a) sf, sf,sf and f
(b) sf, f,sf and f
(c) f, sf,f and af
(d) f, (1-s)f,(2-s)f and sf
20. If two induction motors A and B are identical except that the air-gap of motor ‘A ‘ is 59% greater than that of motor ‘B’, then
(a) the no-load power factor of A will be better than that of B.
(b) the no-load power factor of A will be poorer than that of B.
(c) the core losses of A will be more than those of B
(d) the operating flux of A will be smaller than that of B.
21 A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous motor and an 8-pole, 50 Hz. 3—phase slipring induction motor are mechanically coupled and operate on the some 3-phase, 50 Hz supply system If they are left open-circuited, then the frequency of the voltage produced across any two slip rings would be?
(a) 12.5 Hz
(b) 25.0 Hz
(c) 37.5 Hz
(d) 50.0 Hz
22. Which of the following statements regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor are correct?
I. It prevents cogging;
2. It produces more uniform torque.
3. it increases starting torque.
4. It reduces motor ‘hum’ during its operation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a)2,3 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c)1,3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 4
23. The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor copper loss will be
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W
(d) 700 W
24. If an input signal with non-zero dc component is applied to a low pass RC network, the dc component in the output will be ?
(a) the same as that in the input
(b) less than that in the input
(c) more than that in the input
(d) zero
25. A 3 phase wound rotor induction motor, when started with load connected to its shaft, was found to start but settle down at about half synchronous speed. If the rotor winding as well as the stator winding were star connected, then the cause of the malfunction could be attributed to
(a) one of the stator phase windings being short–circuited
(b) one of the supply fuses being blown
(c) one of the rotor phases being open-circuited
(d) two of the rotor phases being open circuited
26. Consider the following statements regarding fractional horse power shaded-pole motor:
1. Its direction of rotation is from unshaded to shaded portion of the poles.
2.. Its direction of rotation is from shaded to unshaded portion of the poles.
3. It can remain stalled for short periods without any harm.
4. It has a very poor power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
27. In the case of a converter-inverter speed control arrangement f an induction motor operating with v/f constant and with negligible stator impedance.
(a) the maximum torque is independent of frequency
(b) the maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(c) the slip at maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(d) the starting torque is proportional to frequency
28 An amplifier with mid-band gain A = 500 has negative feedback beta = 1/100 the upper cut-off without feedback were at 60 kHz, then with feedback it would become
(a) 10kHz
(b) 12kHz
(c) 300 kHz
(d) 360 kHz
29. If the discharge is 1 m cube and the head of water is 1 m then the power generated by the alternator in one hour (assume 100% efficiency of generator and turbine) will be
(a) 10kW
(b) 73/75kW
(c) 746/75kW
(d) 100kw
30. Control rods used In unclear reactors are made of
(a) zirconium
(b) boron
(c) beryllium
(d) lead
31. if alpha = 0.98, Ico=6 microA I beta =100 microA for a transistor, Then the value of Ic will he
(a) 2.3mA
(b) 3.lmA
(c) 4.6mA
(d) 5.2mA
32. In a 3-core extra-high voltage cable, a metallic screen around each core-insulation is provided to
(a) facilitate heat dissipation
(h) give mechanic strength
(c) obtain radial electric stress
(d) obtain longitudinal electric stress
33. Galloping In transmission line conductors arises generally due to
(a) asymmetrical layers of ice formation
(b) vortex phenomenon in light winds
(c) heavy weight of the line conductors
(d) adoption of horizontal conductor configurations
34.. In a 3- phase rectifier circuit, thyristor number 1, 2 and 3 are connected respectively to R, Y and B phases of the star-connected transformer secondary. When the current is being commutated front thyristor No. 1 to No. 2, the effect of the transformer leakage and the ac system Inductance will be such that it will?
(a) Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and delay the turn on of No. 2 correspondingly.
(b) stop the conduction in No. 1 at the scheduled time, but delay the turn on of No. 2
(c) produce conduction in both No. 1 and No. 2 in parallel for an overlapping period through a transient
(d) double the voltage output through a commutation transient
35. The incremental generating costs of two generating units are given by
IC1=0.10 X + 20 Rs /MWhr
IC1=0.15 Y + 18 Rs /MWhr
where X and V are power generated by the two units in MW.
For a total demand of 300 MW, the value (in MW) of X and Y will be respectively
(a) 172 and 123
(b) 123 and 172
(c) 175 and 125
(d) 200 and 100
36. Consider the following statements:
To provide reliable protection for a distribution transformer against over voltages using lightning arrestors, it is essential that the
1. lead resistance is high.
2. distance between the transformer and the arrestor is small
3. transformer and the arrestor have a common inter-connecting ground.
4. Spark over voltage of the arrestor is greater than the residual voltage.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
37. The reflection coefficient of a short-circuited line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
38.Iif an intrinsic semiconductors is doped with a very small amount of born then in the extrinsic semiconductor so farmed, the number of electrons and holes will
(a)decrease
(b) increase and decrease respectively
(c)increase
(d) decrease and increase respectively
39. Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to
(a) reduce weight of copper
(b) improve stability
(c) reduce corona
(d) increase power transmission capacity
40. In the solution of load-flow equation, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is superior to the Gauss- Seidel (GS) method, because the
(a) time taken to perform one iteration in the NR method is less When compared to the time taken in the OS method
(b) number of iterations required in the NR method is more when compared to that in the GS method
(c) number of iterations required is not independent of the size of the system in the NR method
(d) convergence characteristics of the NR method are not affected by the selection of slack bus
41. In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a conventional winding rotor because of
(a) higher efficiency
(b) increased steady-state stability limit
(c) higher short-circuit ratio
(d) better damping
42. Consider the following statements regarding speed control of induction motors by means of external rotor resistors:
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by reduced efficiency.
2. With a large resistance in the rotor circuit, the speed would vary considerably with variation in torque
3. The method is very complicated
The Disadvantages of such a method of speed control would include
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
43. Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are in ?
(a) grounded star/delta
(b) delta/star
(c) star/grounded star
(d) delta/delta
44. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The Zero Sequence current in this case will be
(a) zero
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 66.6A
(d) 100 A
45. Consider the following statements:
Switched mode power supplies are preferred over the continuous types, because they are
1. suitable for use in both ac and dc.
2; more efficient,
3. suitable for low-power circuits.
4. suitable for high-power circuits.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
46. The power generated by two plants are P1 = 50MW, P2= 40 MW.
If the loss coefficients are B11 = 0.001, B22 = 0.0025 and B12 = -0.0005, the power loss will be
(a)5.5 MW
(b) 6.5 MW
(c) 4.5Mw
(d) 8.5 MW
47. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum when then duty cycle is?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.9
48. The following data pertain to two alternators working in parallel and supplying a total load of 80 MW:
Machine 1 : 40 MVA with 5% speed regulation
Machine 2: 60 MVA with 5% speed regulation
The load sharing between machines 1 and 2 will be
(a)P1/48MW, P2/32MW
(b) 40MW. 40MW
(c)30MW,50MW
(d) 32 MW. 48MW
49. The per unit impedance of a synchronous machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is Increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value will be
(a)0.266
(b) 0.242
(c)0.220
(d) 0.200
50. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive load at a firing angle of alpha = 60°. The average value of current flowing in the load is 10 A, If a very large inductance is connected in the load circuit, then the
(a) average value of current will remain as 10 A
(b) average value of current wilt become greater than 10 A
(c) average value of current will become less than 10 A
(d) trend of variation of current cannot be predicted unless the exact value of the inductance connected is known

Answers at
exams.qoney.comhttp://exams.qoney.com/electrical-engineering-objective-questions-mcq-for-graduate-engineers-fully-solved/

Current GK General Knowledge for IES 2009

1. What is the budget of Manned Space mission of ISRO?

a 8500 Crore Rs

b 12400 Crore Rs

c 15000 Crore Rs

d 17350 Crore Rs

ANS B




2. Who is the Deputy Chairman of planning Commission?

a Montek Singh Ahluwalia

b Manmohan Singh

c P Chidambram

d Rajshekhra Reddy

ANS A





3.Who is the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre?

a A K Antony

b P C Ghadai

c G S Gupta

d K Radhakrishna

ANS D




What is the name of British Foreign Secretary who toured India in Jan 2009?

a O Sullevan

b David Miliband

c Warren Buffet

d Joseph Hewes


ANS B





4. Recently a motion was Submitted to Chairman Rajya Sabha Hamid Ansari .The motion was Filed under Article 217(1-b) and article 124 (4).These two articles have provision regarding



a Removal of high Court Judge

b Delimitation of constituencies

c More power for Rajya Sabha

d Allocation of Assets to states

ANS A





5.On 3rd Feb 2009 India Signed a Pact for Co-operation in production and marketing of Biofuels in a sustainable and environmental Friendly manner with



a Italy

b Singapore

c US

d Britain


ANS C


6.India’s Biggest Solar Energy Plant is Coming up in

a Asansol West Bengal

b Ujjain MP

c Vapi Gujrat

d Jaislmer Rajasthan


ANS A


7.According to UNICEF Report State of World’s Children 2009, India’s Maternal Mortality Rate MMR Stands at (per 1, 00,000 Live Births)

a 540

b 450

c 730

d 1019


ANS B

8.According to Forest Survey of India Report 2007 what percentage of India’s territory is covered under Forests?

a 23

b 33

c 36

d 39.5

ANS A


9.Environment ministry has recently proposed a Central Scheme of Rs 890 Core to Have ‘rich forest ‘ in each panchayat by 2012 .The scheme is known as

a Gram van Yojna

b Panchayat Jungle Yojna

c Vriksh lagao Yojna

d Van panchayat Yojna


ANS D
10. 12th India international Security Expo was held in Feb 2009 at

a Kolkata

b Mumbai

c Delhi

d Chennai

ANS C


11.Admiral Gorshkov an Aircraft carrier from Russia is being acquired by Indian Navy

What is the new name of The carrier

a INS Virat

b INS Sanhar

c INS Jal Shakti

d INS Vikramaditya

ANS D



12. In Feb 2009 parliament of which nation Voted to Shut a US airbase?

a Kyrgyzstan

b Uganda

c Saudi Arabia

d Iran


ANS A

13 Who is The President of Sri Lanka ?

a Ranil Wickremesinghe

b SB Dissanayke

c Rajapaksha

d None of the above


ANS C

14 Who is the New Prime Minister of Zimbabwe?

a Morgan Tsvangirai

b Robert Mugabe

c Thokozani khupe

d Tendai Biti

ANS A


15 Hugo Chavez is President of which Country?

a Nigeria

b Ausrtia

c Finland

d Venezuela


ANS D
16 Swat Valley which was recently in News is Situated in?

a Pakistan

b Iran

c Afganistan

d Russia

ANS A


17 Recently Which neighboring Country of India Witnessed mutiny in an Armed force?

a Sri lanka

b Bangla Desh

c Pakistan

d Nepal

ANS B


18 In Feb 2009 which Indian State signed a Memorandum of Understanding MOU with International Co-operative Alliance ICA



a Haryana

b Punjab

c Tamil nadu

d Gujrat

ANS B


19 Who will be the Indian Ambassador to US from April 2009

a Ronen Sen

b Sudhir Vyas

c Meera Shankar

d Sharat Sabharwal

ANS C


20 Who will be the Next Indian Ambassador In Germany

a Ronen Sen

b Sudhir Vyas

c Meera Shankar

d Sharat Sabharwal

ANS B

Online Free Preperation Questions for IES 2009 GA

These Questions are useful for preperation for GA for IES 2009

1 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick

2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only

3. Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857? ‘
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
6 . Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
7. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Movementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
9. In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
10. At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
11. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
12. Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

13 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaties, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America’
(c) West America (d) South America
14 . What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist leader of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
15. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
16. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China’
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
17. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

19 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

21 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu

22. Itaipu Dam built art the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
23. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the’ Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (p) 3 only
24. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth’s water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the stateinentsgiven above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d)Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
27 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
28 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba

29 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra’ Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block

30 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodiumcarbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2

31 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do ‘little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

32 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
33 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
34 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry

35 . Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
36 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph’e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the’ following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey

39 Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain

40 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
42 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘e-chaupals’?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
43 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.

44 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India’s Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
45 . Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
46 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
47 . Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
48 . Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
49 .Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia

50 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

51 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only- (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

52 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
53 Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
56. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
57. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
58. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
60. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi

Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They’ are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder’s hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
61. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
62. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
63. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
64. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
65. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
66
On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
67.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
68.
A big rectangular pIot. of area 4320 m Square is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m

69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury

70 Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
71 . 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. ”
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
73. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
74.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
75. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader’s Digest Indian Express publication group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

76. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise lndustrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
77. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
78. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and C never sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above

79 Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
80. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass’ - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
81. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How.many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
82. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
83. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
84. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
85. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its
one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. Whatis the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
86. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
87. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
88. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
89. Match items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List - I (Location) List - 1I (Known For/1n News for)
A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run
B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit
C. Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant
D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
90. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna

92. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
93. Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
95. Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan’ disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3

96 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

97 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population ‘2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98 . Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville

99 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
100 . Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Check the answers at original site at http://zigg.in/gk/?p=22

Free Online Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007

Free Online Objective Test Paper IES UPSC Mechanical Engineering P2 2007
These questions appeared in IES 2007.This is totally free objective test.To download select the text and save in Word or Text.
1. Which one of the following metal forming processes is not a high energy rate
forming process ?
(a) Electro-magnetic forming (b) Roll-forming
(c) Explosive forming (d) Electro-hydraulic forming

2. What are the advantages of powder metallurgy ?
1. Extreme purity product
2. Low labour cost.
3. Low equipment cost.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists:
List I (Casting Process)
A. Die casting
B. Investment casting
C. Shell moulding
D. Centrifugal casting
Code:

List II (Principle)
1. The metal solidifies in a rotating mould
2. The pattern cluster is repeatedly dipped into a ceramic slurry and dusted with refractory
3. Molten metal is forced by pressure into a metallic mould
4. After cooling the invest is removed from the casting by pressure jetting or vibratory cleaning

A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4


4. Consider the following statements in respect of investment castings:
1. The pattern or patterns is/are not joined to a stalk or sprue also of wax to form a tree of patterns.
2.
The prepared moulds are placed in an oven and heated gently to dry off the invest and melt out the bulk of wax.
3.
The moulds are usually poured by placing the moulds in a vacuum chamber.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


5 Which of the following are employed in shell moulding ?
1. Resin binder
2. Metal pattern
3. Heating coils
5 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

6. Wh ich one of the following is the correct statement ?
In a centrifugal casting method
(a) no core is used (b) core may be made of any metal
(c) core is made of sand (d) core is made of ferrous metal

7. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
Gate is provided in moulds to
(a) feed the casting at a constant rate
(b) give passage to gases
(c) compensate for shrinkage
(d) avoid cavities

8. Consider the following statements in respect of oxy-acetylene welding:
1. The joint is not heated to a state of fusion.
2. No pressure is used.
3. Oxygen is stored in steel cylinder at a pressure of 14 MPa.
4. When there is an excess of acetylene used, there is a decided change in the appearance of flame.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

9. The coating material of an arc welding electrode contains which of the following
1. Deoxidising agent
2. Arc stabilizing agent
3. Slag forming agent
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

10. In MIG welding, the metal is transferred into the form of which one of the following ?
(a) A fine spray of metal (b) Molten drops
(c) Weld pool {d) Molecules

Consider the following statements in respect of the laser beam welding:
1. It can be used for welding any metal or their combinations because of very high temperature of the focal points.
2. Heat affected zone is very large because of quick heating.
3. High vacuum is required to carry the process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following effects are possible due to residual stresses in welding ?
1. Reduce dimensional stability.
2. Weld cracking.
3. Effect on fatigue strength.
4. Reduction in the creep strength.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) land 3 only id) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. During machining, excess metal is removed in the form of chip as in the case of
turning on a lathe. Which of the following are correct ?
Continuous ribbon like chip is formed when turning
1. at a higher cutting speed
2. at a lower cutting speed
3. a brittle material
4. a ductile material

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 3 (b) l and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4


13. Screw threads are produced on solid rods by using which of the following ?
(a) Dies (b) Punch
(c) Mandrel (d) Boring bar

14. What is the process ofremoving metal by a milling cutter which is rotated against
the direction of travel of the work piece, called ?
(a) Down milling (b) Up milling
(c) End milling (b) Face milling


15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List I List II
(Long Column)
A. Both ends hinged
B. One end fixed and other
end free
C. Both ends fixed
D. One end fixed, and other
hinged
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

16. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of packing density for
the given crystal structures of metals ?
(a) Simple cubic - Face centred cubic - Body centred cubic
(b) Body centred cubic - Simple cubic ~ Face centred cubic
(c) Simple cubic - Body centred cubic - Face centred cubic
(d) Body centred cubic — Face centred cubic - Simple cubic

17. Vibration damping in machinery is best achieved by means of base structures
made of which one of the following materials ?
(a) Low carbon steel (6) Nodular iron
(c) Grey cast iron (d) White cast iron


18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I List II
(Component) (Required Property)
A. Blades of bulldozer 1. High wear resistance and high toughness
B. Gas turbine blades 2. Low Young's modulus and high fatigue
strength
C. Drill bit 3. High wear and abrasion
D. Springs of automobiles 4. High creep strength and good corrosion
resistance

Code:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4

19. What is the movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic planes and
directions, termed as ?
(a) Glide (b) Twinning
(c) Slip (d)Jog

20. Which one of the following is the correct statement f
Pearlite in iron-carbon system is a
(a) phase consisting of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (6) Mechanical mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature (c) eutectic mixture of ferrite and cementite at room temperature {d) All the above three are correct

21. Which of the following factors influence hardness in a plain carbon steel ?
1. Percentage carbon
2. Quenching media
3. Work size
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the Lists.
List I List II
(Material) (Application)
A. Fibre reinforce plastics 1. Automobile tyres
B. Acryli les 2. Aircraft
C. Phenolics 3. Lenses
D. Butadiene rubber 4. Electric switch cover
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

23. Which one of the following is the most effective strengthening mechanism of non-
ferrous metal ?
(a) Solid solution hardening (b) Strain hardening
(c) Grain size refinement (d) Precipitation hardening

24. Wood is natural composite consisting of which of the following ?
(a) Lignin fibers in collagen matrix
(b) Lignin fibers in apatite matrix
(c) Cellulose fibres in apatite matrix
(d) Cellulose fibres in lignin matrix

25. Which one of the following is not a ceramic ?
(a) Alumina (b) Porcelain
(c) Whisker (d) Pyrosil

26. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has which one of the following compositions ?
(a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V (b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
(c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V (d) 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V

27. Which one of the following elements alloys exhibits season cracking ?
(a) Iron (6) Brass
(c) Aluminium (d) Steel


28. Which metal forming process is used for manufacture of long steel wire ?
(a) Deep drawing (b) Forging
(c) Drawing (d) Extrusion

29. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(a) Extrusion is used for the manufacture of seamless tubes
(b) Extrusion is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the work
(c) Extrusion is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses on its surface
(d) Extrusion comprises pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired from the finished part

30. Interference between the teeth of two meshing involute gears can be reduced oreliminated by
1. Increasing the addendum of the gear teeth and correspondingly reducing the addendum of the pinion.
2. reducing the pressure angle of the teeth of the meshing gears
3. increasing the centre distance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

31. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In meshing gears with involute gear teeth, the correct begins at the intersection of the
(a) line of action and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(b) line of action and the pitch circle of the driven gear
(c) dedendum circle of the driver gear and the addendum circle of the driven gear
(d) addendum circle of the driver gear and the pitch circle of the driven gear

32. The turning moment diagram for a single cylinder double acting steam engine
consists of+ve and -ve loops above the below the average torque line. For the +ve
loop, the ratio of the speeds of the flywheel at the beginning and the end is which
one of the following
(a) Less than unity (b) Equal to unity
(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero

33. In a slider-bar mechanism, when does the connecting rod have zero angular ve
locity ?
(a) When crank angle = 0° (b) When crank angle = 90°
(c) When crank angle = 45° (d) Never


34. Consider the following follower motions in respect of a given lift, speed of rotation
and angle of stroke of a cam:
1. Cycloidal motion.
2. Simple harmonic motion.
3. Uniform velocity motion.


35. In order for a transportation matrix which has six rows and four columns not to
be degenerate, how much must be the number of allocated cells in the matrix ?
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 24


36. Which one of the following causes the whirling of shafts ?
(a) Non-homogeneity of shaft material
(b) Misalignment of bearings
(c) Fluctuation of speed
(d) Internal damping

37. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
In the standard form of a linear programming problem, all constraints are (a) of less than or equal to, type (b) of greater than or equal to , type
(c) in the form of equations
(d) some constraints are of less than equal to, type and some of greater than equal to, type

38. Ifm is the number of constraints in a linear programming with two variables x
and y and non-negativity constraints x>0,y>0; the feasible region in the graphi
cal solution will be surrounded by how many lines ?
(a) m (b) m + 1
(c) m + 2 (d) m + 4

39. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of acceptance sampling ?
(a) This is widely suitable in mass production (b) It causes less fatigue to inspectors
(c) This is muen economical
(d) It gives definite assurance for the conformation of the specifications for all the pieces

40. Which one of the following subroutines does a computer implementation of the
simplex routine require ?
(a) Finding a root of a polynomial
(b) Solving a system of linear equations
(c) Finding the determinant of a matrix
(d) Finding the eigenvalue of a matrix

41, Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below Lists:
List I List II
(Application) (Joint)

A. Boiler Shell 1, Cotter Joint
B. Marine Shaft Coupling 2. Knuckle Joint
C. Crosshead and Piston Rod 3. Riveted joint
D. Automobile gear box 4. Splines
(gears to shaft) 5. Bolted Joint
Code :
A B C D
(.a) 1 4 2 5
(b) 3 5 1 4
(c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 3 4 1 5


42. How can shock absorbing capacity of a bell be increased ?
(a) By tightening it properly
(6) By increasing the shank diameter
(c)By grinding the shank
(d)By making the shank diameter equal to the core diameter of thread

43. How is the type of a railway wheel fitted ?
(a) By seam welding (6) By fillet welding
(c) By interference fit (d) None of the above

44. Consider the following statements in case of belt drives:
1. Centrifugal tension in the belt increases the transmitted power.
2. Centrifugal tension does not affect the driving tension.
3. Maximum tension in the belt is always three times the centrifugal tension. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

45.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Worm gear 1. Imposes no thrust load on the shaft
B. Spur gear 2. To transmit power between two non-inter-
secting shafts which are perpendicular
C. Herringbone 3. lb transmitpower when the shafts are parallel
D. Spiral level gear 4. To transmit power when the shafts are at
right angles to one another
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

46. The velocity ratio between pinion and gear in a gear drive is 2-3, the module of
teeth is 2-0 mm and sum of number of teeth on pinion and gear is 99. What is the
centre distance between pinion and the gear ?
(a) 49. 5 mm (6) 99 mm
(c) 148.5 mm (d) 198 mm

47. Compared tc years with 20°pressure angle involute full depth teeth, those with 20°pressure angle and stub teeth have
1. smaller addendum.
2. smaller dedendum.
3. smaller tooth thickness.
4. greater bending strength.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

48. An hollow shaft of outer dia 40 mm and inner dia of 20 mm is to be replaced by a solid shaft to transmit the same torque at the same maximum stress. What should
be the diameter of the solid shaft ?
(a) 30 mm (b) 35 mm
(c) 10x(60)1/3mm (d) 10x(20)1/3mm

49. What is the direction of the Coriolis component of acceleration in a slotted lever-
crank mechanism ?
(a) Along the sliding velocity vector
(6) Along the direction of the crank
(c) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction opposite to the angular velocity of the slotted lever
(d) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction same as that of the angular velocity of the slotted lever

50. The controlling force curves for a spring-controlled governor are shown if the above figure. Which curve represents a stable governor ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4


51. For a governor running at constant speed, what is the value of the force acting on
the sleeve ?
(a) Zero (6) Variable depending upon the load
(c) Maximum (d) Minimum


52 A motion is aperiodic at what value of the damping factor ?
(a) 1. 0 or above (6) 0. 5
(c) 0. 3 (d) 0. 866

53 Which one of the following statements relating to belt drives is correct ?
(a) The rotational speeds of the pulleys are directly proportional to their diameters
(6) The length of the crossed belt increases as the sum of the diameters of the pulleys increases
(c) The crowning of the pulleys is done to make the drive sturdy
d) The slip increases the velocity ratio


54. Under service conditions involving jarring, vibration and pulsation of the
working load, the bolt of choice would be a
(a) short bolt with high rigidity (b) long bolt with increased elasticity
(c) bolt wiht a dished washer (d) bolt with castle nut

55. Gearing contact is which one of the following ?
(a) Sliding contact
(6) Sliding contact, only rolling at pitch point
(c) Rolling contact
(d) Rolling and sliding at each point of contact


Directions:
The next 4 (Four) items consist of two statements; one labelled as the 'Assertion(A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)\ You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true


56. Assertion (A) : For drilling cast iron, the tool is provided with a point angle smaller than
that required for a ductile material. Reason (R) : Smaller point angle results in lower rake angle.


57. Assertion (A) : Greater force on the plunger is required in case of direct extrusion then
indirect one. Reason (R) : In case of direct extrusion, the direction of the force applied on the plunger and the direction of the movement of the extruded metal are the same.


58. Assertion (A): In a multispindle automatic lathe, the turret tool holder is indexed to
engage the cutting tools one by one for successive machining operations.
Reason (R) : Turret is a multiple tool holder so that for successive machining operation, the tools need not be changed.

59. Assertion (A) : Value engineering is a technique applied to compete in the market only
at the time of introduction of a product or service. Reason (R) : Increasing the functional worth of a product appreciably, keeping the cost almost constant, is the real objective of value engineering.

60. Consider the following statements:
In a thick walled cylindrical pressure vessel subjected to internal pressure, the tangential and radial stresses are
1. minimum at outer side
2. minimum at inner side
3. maximum at inner side and both reduce to zero at outer well
4. maximum at inner wall but the radial stress reduces to zero at outer wall Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) l and 2 (6) l and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only

61. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a helical spring is halved in length, its spring stiffness
(a) remains same (b) halves
(c) doubles (d) triples '

62 . Which one of the following statements is correct ?
When a rectangular section beam is loaded transversely along the length, shear stress develops on
(a) top fibre of rectangular beam
(6) middle fibre of rectangular beam
(c) bottom fibre of rectangular beam
(d) every horizontal plane


63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(a) the bending moment is the same throughout the beam (6) the shear stress is the same throughout the beam
(c) the deflection is the same throughout the beam
(d) the bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis

64. A cantilever beam of 2 m length supports a triangularly distributed load over its
entire length, the maximum of which is at the free end. The total load is 37-5 kN.
What is the bending moment at the fixed end ?
(a) 50 x 106 N mm (b) 12. 5 x 106 N mm
(c) 100 x 106 N mm (d) 25 x 106 N mm

65. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If a material expands freely due to heating, it will develop
(a) thermal stress (b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress (d) no stress

66. What is the phenomenon of progressive extension of the material i.e., strain increasing with the time at a constant load, called ?
(a) Plasticity (b) "Yielding
(c) Creeping (d) Breaking

67. What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called ?
(a) Homogeneous materials (6) /Viscoelastic materials
(c) Isotropic materials (d) Anisotropic materials

68. If the ratio G/E (G = Rigidity modulus, E = Young's modulus of elasticity) is 0>4,
then what is the value of the Poisson ratio ?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.33

69 Increase in values of which of the following results in an increase of the coeffi
cient of friction in a hydrodynamic bearing ?
1. Viscosity of the oil.
2. Clearance between shaft and bearing.
3. Shaft speed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements:
For a journal rotating a bearing under film lubrication conditions, the frictional resistance is
1. proportional to the area of contact
2. proportional to the viscosity of lubricant
3. propoi tional to the speed of rotation
4. independent of the pressure
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

71. Consider the following statements:
1. is a modification of moving average method
2. is a weighted average of past observations
3. assigns the highest weightage to the most recent observation Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

72. Consider the following statements:
Scheduling
1. is a general timetable of manufacturing
2. is the time phase of loading
3. is loading all the work in process on machines according to their capacity Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only

73. In an assembly line, what is the balance delay ?
(a) Line efficiency x 100 (b) 100 - Line efficiency (in percentage)
Line efficiency / 100
(c) (a) None of the above

74. If the fixed cost of the assets for a given period doubles, then how much will the
break-even quantity become ?
(a) Half the original value (6) Same as the original value
(c) Twice the original value (d) Four times the original value

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I (Term)
A. Dummy activity
B. Critical path
C. PERT activity
D. Critical path method
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
List II
(Characteristics)
1. Follows (3 distribution
2. It is built on activity-oriented diagram
3. Constructed only to establish sequence
4. Has zero total slack

76. Consider the following statements:
PERT considers the following time estimates
1. Optimistic time 2. Pessimistic time 3. Most likely time
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) l and 3 only

77. Which one of the following statements in not correct ?
(a) PERT is probabilistic and CPM is deterministic
(b) In PERT, events are used and in CPM activities are used
(c) In CPM, the probability to complete the project in a given time-duration is calculated
(d) In CPM crashing is carried out

78. Which of the following are the benefits of inventory control ? .
1. Improvement in customers relationship.
2. Economy in purchasing.
3. Elimination of the possibility of duplicate ordering. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List I
A. Procurement cost
B. Carrying cost
C. Economic order quantity
D. Reorder point
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
List II
1. Cost of holding materials
2. Cost of receiving order
3. Procurement lead time
4. Break-even analysis

80. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost is doubled, the EOQ
(a) Is halved (6) Is doubled
(c) Increases 1.414 times (d) Decreases 1.414 times

81. Consider the following statements:
1. In C language, both data and the function that operate on that data are combined into a single unit called object.
2. Almost every correct statement in C is also a correct statement in C++, al though the reverse is not true.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (6) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


82. Which of the following methods are gear generating processes ?
1. Gear shaping 2.Gear hobbing 3. Gear milling
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (6) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2and3 only (d) land3 only

83. Among the following machining processes, which can be used for machining flat
surfaces ?
1. Shaping 2. Milling 3. Broaching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (6) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

84.What are the main components of an NC machine ?
1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (6) land2only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) land 3 only


85. Flank wear occurs mainly on which of the following ?
(a) Nose part and top face
(b) Cutting edge only
(c) Nose part, front relief face, and side relief face of the cutting tool
(d) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge

86. Which of the following are the machinability criteria ?
1, Tool life 2. Cutting forces 3, Surface finish
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (o) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

87. In strain gauge dynamometers, the use of how many active gauges makes the
dynamometer more effective ?
(a) Four (6) Three
(c) Two (d) One

88. For increasing the material removal rate in turning, without any constraints,
what is the right sequence to adjust the cutting parameters ?
1. Speed 2. Feed 3. Depth of cut
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3 (6) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-3-2


89. Consider the following statements in relation to the unconventional machining
processes:
1. Different forms of energy directly applied to work piece to have shape trans formation or material removal from work surface.
2. Relative motion between the work and the tool is essential.
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact with work piece.
Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) land 2 only (6) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

90. According to the principle of location in jigs and fixtures, how many degrees of
freedom are to be eliminated to have a body fixed in space ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 id) 6

91.What is the dominant direction of the tool marks or scratches in a surface texture
having a directional quality, called ?
(a) Primary texture (6) Secondary texture
(c) Lay {d) Flaw


92. Which one of the following is not a purpose of long-term forecasting ?
(a) To plan for the new unit of production
(6) To plan the long-term financial requirement
(c) To make the proper arrangement for training the personnel
(d) To decide the purchase programme


93. Consider the following statements relating to forecasting :
1. The time horizon to forecast depends upon where the product currently lies in its life cycle.
2. Opinion and judgemental forecasting methods sometimes incorpotate statistical analysis,
3. In exponential smoothing, low values ofsmoothening constant, alpha result in more smoothing than higher values of alpha.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (6) land 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only